This is more of a mathematical/conceptual question. I am reading through Chapter 12 of Shankar's "Principle's Of Quantum Mechanics" 2nd Edition, and in the very first section he describes a "consistency test" for the translation operator in that:
$$T(\mathbf{b})T(\mathbf{a})=T(\mathbf{a+b}) \tag{12.1.6}$$
$$ e^{-i\mathbf{b}\cdot\mathbf{P}/\hbar }e^{-i\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{P}/\hbar }=e^{-i\mathbf{(a+b)}\cdot\mathbf{P}/\hbar } \tag{12.1.7}$$
Should be true and without proof, he says yes because the operators commute:
$$[P_x,P_y]=0 \tag{12.1.8}$$
This is what I don't understand, how would the exponentials combine if $[P_x,P_y]=0$ did not commute? It seems like they would combine in the same exact way. For example, lets suppose we have two translations in the $\vec{x}$ direction so that we have:
\begin{align} T(\mathbf{b\hat{x}})T(\mathbf{a\hat{x}})&=e^{-i\mathbf{b}\cdot\mathbf{P}/\hbar }e^{-i\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{P}/\hbar }\\ &=e^{-ib{P_x}/\hbar }e^{-ia{P_x}/\hbar }\\ &=e^{-ib{P_x}/\hbar-ia{P_x}/\hbar}\\ &=e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar} (bP_x+aP_x) }\\ &=e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar} (b+a)P_x }\\ \end{align}
Which still satisfies the "law of combination" for the translation and does not even rely on commutativity. Can some one clear this up for me?