Here, In Shankar's (2nd edition, p-283) QM book, The translation operator is given by
$$T(\epsilon) = I - \frac{i\epsilon}{\hbar}G \tag{11.2.13}$$
Similar In Sakurai (Revised edition 1994 p-45), he wrote about equation as following,
“We now demonstrate that if we take the infinitesimal translation operator to be”
$\mathscr{T( \vec{dx'})} = 1 - i \vec{K} d \vec{x'} \tag{1.6.20}$
I do know that this translation operator does satisfy properties such as
$\mathscr{T^\dagger ( \vec{dx'})}\mathscr{T( \vec{dx'})} = 1$
$\mathscr{T( \vec{dx''})}\mathscr{T( \vec{dx'})} = \mathscr{T( \vec{dx''} +\vec{dx'})}$
Here my question is that, do we assume that $T(\epsilon) = I - \frac{i\epsilon}{\hbar}G $? Or there is some math behind, to take such equation. As In Sakurai he assumed the equation, and then he satisfied the properties required for an operator.