I have recently started to study statistical mechanics with Pliscke's and Bergersen's book, but there is one example from the book regarding phase transitions I don't understand.
In the example we are given the Landau free energy $G=\frac{b(T)}{2}m^2+\frac{c(T)}{4}m^4+\frac{d(T)}{6}m^6$ and are supposed to calculate the magnetisation at the critical temperature, $m(T_c)$.
At the critical temperature there will be a phase transition, which according to my knowledge is characterised by all minima of the free energy being local rather than one global, i.e. $G(m_0)=G(0)=0$, where $m_0$ is the magnetisation at a free energy minimum. Is this true for both first order and higher order phase transitions? With a second order phase transition there will only be one minimum at zero at the critical temperature?
Calculating the free energy during the phase transition yields
$G(m_0)-G(0)=0=\frac{b(T)}{2}m_0^2+\frac{c(T)}{4}m_0^4+\frac{d(T)}{6}m_0^6$
which gives the solution $m_0=\pm\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{\pm\sqrt{3(3c^2-16bd)}-3c}{d}}$
Now, according to the book the constant $b$ should be
$b(T_c)=\frac{3c^2}{16d}$
but it doesn't explain why. What is the reason to make the inner root in $m_0$ zero, and thus remove two solutions during the phase transition? With this value of $b$ the solutions $m_0$ become
$m_0^2=-\frac{3c(T_c)}{4d}$