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Let $|\psi\rangle \to |\psi'\rangle = \hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle$ for infinitesimal $\delta x.$ Show that $\langle x \rangle' = \langle x \rangle + \delta x$ and $\langle p_x \rangle' = \langle p_x\rangle.$

I am confused. Why would $\langle x \rangle = \langle x \rangle + \delta x?$ Shouldn't it equal $\langle x \rangle?$ Since, $\langle x\rangle' = \langle \psi'|\hat{x}|\psi'\rangle = \langle \psi'|x\hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle$ and using $\hat{T}(\delta x) = e^{-i\hat{p}_x\delta x/\hbar}$ then $\langle \psi |\hat{T}^{\dagger}(\delta x)\hat{T}(\delta x)x|\psi\rangle = \langle x\rangle.$

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  • $\begingroup$ $[x,T(\delta x)]\neq 0$. Working with an infinitesimal $\delta x$ you can use the taylor expansion to find what the commutation relation is. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 0:11
  • $\begingroup$ $[x,T(\delta x)] = \delta x T(\delta x) $ but then regarding to $p_x$, will $[p_x, T(\delta x)] = 0$? $\endgroup$
    – Luffy
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 0:17
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. One way to make sense of it is if you expand the exponential you get $\hat{p}_x$ terms, and $[\hat{p}_x,\hat{p}_x]$=0. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 0:32

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I am confused. Why would $\langle x \rangle = \langle x \rangle + \delta x$?

Because you acted with the translation operator on the state. This is by definition what we want the translation operator to do. If it doesn't do this then we are in trouble.

Shouldn't it equal $\langle x \rangle?$

Nope.

Since, $\langle x\rangle = \langle \psi'|\hat{x}|\psi'\rangle =\langle \psi'|x\hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle$ and using $\hat{T}(\delta x) = e^{-i\hat{p}_x\delta x/\hbar}$ then $\langle \psi|\hat{T}^{\dagger}(\delta x)\hat{T}(\delta x)x|\psi\rangle = \langle{}x\rangle.$

Nope.

$$ T^\dagger x T\neq T^\dagger T x $$

so $$ \langle \psi'|x\hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle \neq \langle \psi|\hat{T}^{\dagger}(\delta x)\hat{T}(\delta x)x|\psi\rangle $$

You should have: $$ \langle x\rangle = \langle \psi'|\hat{x}|\psi'\rangle =\langle \psi'|x\hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle= \langle \psi|\hat{T}^\dagger(\delta x)x\hat{T}(\delta x)|\psi\rangle $$

Then you have to commute $T$ and $x$, and then use the fact that $T^\dagger T=1$.

HINT[!!!]: $$ [x,p]=i\hbar $$

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    $\begingroup$ Wonderful! Thank you very much, this is exactly what I needed to understand. Once I receive 15 reps I will make sure to upvote your answer. Thanks again! $\endgroup$
    – Luffy
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 3:33
  • $\begingroup$ Hft, I ran into a problem that is similar to this. It says if we modify the wave equation by a position dependent phase, i.e. $e^{ip_ox/\hbar}$ then $\langle x\rangle = \langle x \rangle$ and $\langle p_x \rangle = \langle p_x \rangle + p_o$, but I am not sure why that is? $\endgroup$
    – Luffy
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 6:04
  • $\begingroup$ post it as a new question. Add more detail. We can not carry on an extended discussion in the comment area. $\endgroup$
    – hft
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 6:59
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    $\begingroup$ But, from what I can tell the problem is basically the same but with the p operator replaced by the x operator and the $\delta x$ number replaced by the $p_\sigma$ number. If that is not clear then post it as a new question. $\endgroup$
    – hft
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 7:01

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