I have two questions that i didn't find in books. When calculate time rates of change of the expectation values of $\langle x \rangle$ or $\langle p_x \rangle$, why is x or $p_x$ not derived from time?
Now i want to show this, if $\Psi(r, t) $ is a square integrable wave function normalised to unity,then:
$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle x² \rangle = \frac{1}{m} [ \langle xp_x \rangle + \langle p_xx \rangle]$
Using Ehrenfest's theorem:
$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle x² \rangle = \frac{d}{dt} \int \Psi^*(r,t)x^2 \Psi(r,t) dr $
Derive $\Psi^*(r,t)$ and $\Psi(r,t)$ from time and using schrödinger equation:
$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle x² \rangle = \frac{1}{2m i\hbar} \int \Psi^*[x^2 p_x² - p_x ² x^2 ]\Psi dr $
Inside the brackets is the operator [x²,p_x²], i don't know how calculate this operator, i believe that is not necesary, so:
$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle x² \rangle = \frac{1}{2m i\hbar} \int \Psi^*[x(xp_x)p_x - p_x(p_xx)x ]\Psi dr $
I can use $xp_x -p_xx= i \hbar$, but how if x and $p_x$ not commute?