2
$\begingroup$

I've found the following equation in this source: $$B_\text{N,S} = \frac{\mu m}{4\pi r_\text{N,S}^2}$$ Where $r$ is the distance of "one pole"? I do not get how this can be well defined. The effective field is then something like $$ B_{\text{eff}} = B_\text{N} - B_\text{S} .$$ Where $\text{S}$ is the south pole and $\text{N}$ the north pole.

I thought that the equation magnetic dipole would be the starting point for the derivation of the above formula - but I dont see how this formula can be transformed: $$\vec{B} = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\left(\frac{3\vec{r}(\vec{m}\vec{r})}{r^5} - \frac{\vec{m}}{r^3}\right)$$ The magnitude $B$ is $$B = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\left(\frac{3m\cos(\alpha)}{r^3} - \frac{m}{r^3}\right).$$ Are $B_\text{eff}$ and $B$ equivalent?

$\endgroup$

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.