consider the following variational principle:
when we vary $p$ and $q$ independently to find the equations of motion, why aren't we explicitly varying the Coeff $u$ which are clearly functions of $p$ and $q$? the authors also either didn't vary $u$ and got the EOM (or) varied $u$ but neglected it since $\phi_m$ are ultimately zero on shell:
so, my question is which one of the above they did and why?
References:
- M. Henneaux & C. Teitelboim, Quantization of Gauge Systems, 1994; subsection 1.1.4: eqs. (1.12) + (1.13).