I am trying to understand why the number of degrees of freedom in a molecule, $3N$, is the same as the number of degrees of freedom of $N$ independent particles. Why do the molecular constraints like bond length and bond angle not take away any degrees of freedom?
My question stems from explaining why a molecule has a certain number of vibrational modes/vibrational degrees of freedom: $3N-5$ for linear molecules and $3N-6$ for nonlinear molecules, and the easiest way to show that is by postulating that the total number of degrees of freedom is $3N$ and going from there. But why are there $3N$ degrees of freedom? A proof would be nice, but an intuitive explanation is sufficient.
I understand that the degrees of freedom in a molecule are coupled, that makes sense, but what am I missing? Are these "constraints" not actual constraints since there is no definitive bond lengths and bond angles?