We all learned that by theorem of equipartition of energy, the quadratic terms in position or velocity components contribute to the number of degrees of freedom. Therefore, for a diatomic molecule, the vibration degree of freedom is 2. As I understand it and in any text, the vibrational degrees of freedom in diatomic molecule is counted like this:
- The first vibrational freedom comes from $\frac{1}{2}\mu v^2$ which contribute $\frac{1}{2}kT$ to the total energy, coming from the kinetic energy term.
- The second vibrational freedom comes from $\frac{1}{2}k x^2$ which contribute $\frac{1}{2}kT$ to the total energy, coming from the potential energy of the spring.
However, there is a general formula for linear molecules to count the number of vibration degrees of freedom, which is $3N-5$, using this equation, the vibration degree of freedom comes out to be only $(3\times 2-5 =)\ 1$ which is confusing and does not equate to the above deduction.
Also, this is the same case with $CO_2$, if we look up number of vibrational degrees of freedom of $CO_2$, there are 4, corresponding to symmetric stretching, asymmetric stretching and two bending. If there are four modes of vibration, there must be 8 different quadratic components that contribute to the number of degrees of freedom coming from the quadratic potential and kinetic energy terms. Why this is not so? What am I missing? Please help!