After reading online, I want to try to answer to my own question: I've been searching deeper and I've found this article (pages 11-13) that features a proof for the orthochronous condition without referring the entries of the Lorentz transformation $\Lambda$. Even if this kind of approach is more general I find the Buzz's one to be more intuitive.
The author starts from the condition
$$ \Lambda^T \eta \Lambda = \eta $$
that in tensor notation becomes
$$ \Lambda^\alpha_\mu \Lambda^\beta_\nu \eta_{\alpha \beta} = \eta_{\mu \nu} \tag{1}$$
but also
$$ \Lambda^\alpha_\mu \Lambda^\beta_\nu \eta_{\alpha \beta} = \eta_{\mu \nu} \Rightarrow \Lambda^\alpha_\mu \Lambda^\beta_\nu \eta_{\alpha \beta} \eta^{\alpha \mu} \eta^{\beta \nu} = \eta_{\mu \nu} \eta^{\alpha \mu} \eta^{\beta \nu} \Rightarrow \Lambda_\mu^\alpha \Lambda_\nu^\beta \delta^\mu_\beta \eta^{\beta \nu} = \delta_\nu^\alpha \eta^{\beta \nu}
$$
$$ \Lambda_\mu^\alpha \Lambda_\nu^\beta \eta^{\mu \nu} = \eta^{\alpha \beta} \tag{2} $$
Now, it is possible to retrieve a useful relation from $(1)$, setting $\mu = \nu = 0$:
$$ \left( \Lambda_0^0 \right)^2 - \sum_{i = 1}^3 \left( \Lambda_0^i \right)^2 = 1 \tag{1.1}$$
Doing the same for $(2)$, and setting $\alpha = \beta = 0$
$$ \left( \Lambda_0^0 \right)^2 - \sum_{i = 1}^3 \left( \Lambda^0_i \right)^2 = 1 \tag{2.1}$$
Now, consider a generic $4$-vector $\vec{x}$, by applying $\Lambda$ on it, it is obtained a new $4$-vector $\vec{x}'$ whose components are
$$ x'^\mu = \Lambda^\mu_\alpha x^\alpha $$
In particular, the time component $x'^0$
$$ x'^0 = \Lambda^0_\alpha x^\alpha = \Lambda^0_0 x^0 + \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \tag{3} $$
Now the first step to derive the orthochronous condition is to build the following inequality from the sum of the transformed spatial terms $\sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i$ of $\vec{x}$ inside $x'^0$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \sum_{i=1}^3 \left( \Lambda^0_i \right)^2 \sum_{j=1}^3 \left( x^j \right)^2 $$
Now it is possible to sobstitute $(2.1)$ in place of $\sum_{i=1}^3 \left( \Lambda^0_i \right)^2$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \left[ \left( \Lambda^0_0 \right)^2 - 1 \right] \sum_{j=1}^3 \left( x^j \right)^2 \tag{4}$$
Now, as Buzz said, the orthochronous condition applies to timelike $4$-vectors. The most intuitive way for me to understand why only the time component of timelike $4$-vectors matters, relies on the following interpretation of spacetime vectors
A timelike vector connects two events that are causally connected,
that is the second event is in the light cone of the first event. A
spacelike vector connects two events that are causally disconnected,
that is the second event is outside the light cone of the first event.
From Vagelford's answer on this question. Timelike $4$-vectors lie inside the lightcone of a first event $O$. Suppose a timelike $4$-vector connects $O$ to a second event $A$. This means that if some kind of information (i.e. sound, EM waves...) propagates from $O$ to $A$, it is possible that it reaches $A$ before $A$ happens with a velocity $v = \beta c < c$, and hence it is possible that it influences the event $A$. The defining feature of a timelike $4$-vector is indeed the following
$$ || \vec{x} ||^2 = x^\mu x_\nu = x^\mu x^\nu \eta_{\nu \mu} = \left( c t \right)^2 - || \vec{r} ||^2 > 0 \Longrightarrow \left( c t \right)^2 > || \vec{r} ||^2 $$
Where $ \vec{r} = \left( x, y, z \right) $. Therefore timelike $4$-vectors can causally connect to events, that is the first event $O$ is the cause that influences the second event $A$. Thanks to the possible causality, in principle, it is sensible the notion of reversing the time flow, that is, switching the cause and the effect, using a Lorentz transformation $\Lambda$.
On the other hand, spacelike $4$-vectors lie outside the lightcone of a first event $O$ . This means that, given a spacelike $4$-vector that connects $O$ to a second event $B$ in order for them to be causally connected it is necessary that some kind of information, originated in $O$, reaches $B$ before $B$ happens, and this implies that the same information would need to propagate faster than $c$, which, in turn, violates one of the postulate of special relativity. The defining feature of a spacelike $4$-vector is indeed the following
$$ || \vec{x} ||^2 = x^\mu x_\nu = x^\mu x^\nu \eta_{\nu \mu} = \left( c t \right)^2 - || \vec{r} ||^2 < 0 \Longrightarrow \left( c t \right)^2 < || \vec{r} ||^2 $$
There is another way of interpreting timelike and spacelike $4$-vectors, suggested by zeldredge's answer to this question
Spacelike separation means that there exists a reference frame where
the two events occur simultaneously, but in different places. Timelike
separation means that there exists a reference frame where the two
events occur at the same place, but at different times. Lightlike
means that, well, light could travel between those points.
and by Mayou36's answer to the same post
[...]
time-like: if you are fast enough, you can be at (think spatial, like
"at the festival") event a and at event b, it is only a "matter of
time" until you see the second event
space-like: the two events are too far apart (in space). You cannot
see both of them together, no matter how fast you are. As soon as
event a happened and you go as fast as possible, event b will have
happened before you arrive there.
[...]
So a space-like separation makes any causal relation between the two
events impossible, i.e. one cannot cause or influence the other$^1$.
$^1$as mentioned, a common cause (an event that is time-like to both
events) can still make the two correlated.
This means that, to ensure that a Lorentz transformation $\Lambda$ doesn't reflect time, swapping the past and the present, it is necessary to force that for a timelike $4$-vector, after the transformation, the past remains the past and the future remains the future (this is what the author of the paper means with the phrase "mapping the future on itself" (and the past on itself), in proposition 1.2).
The verse in which the time is flowing is encoded by the sign of the time component of the aforementioned $4$-vector, therefore, for a timelike $4$-vector $\vec{x}'$, $x'^0 = \Lambda^0_\alpha x^\alpha$ must have the same sign of $x^0$. For a timelike $4$-vector
$$ \left( x^0 \right)^2 > \sum_{i=1}^3 \left( x^i \right)^2 $$
Applying the transitive property in $(4)$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \left[ \left( \Lambda^0_0 \right)^2 - 1 \right] \sum_{j=1}^3 \left( x^j \right)^2 \leq \left[ \left( \Lambda^0_0 \right)^2 - 1 \right] \left( x^0 \right)^2 \Longrightarrow $$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \left[ \left( \Lambda^0_0 \right)^2 - 1 \right] \left( x^0 \right)^2 = \left( \Lambda^0_0 \right)^2 \left( x^0 \right)^2 - \left( x^0 \right)^2 \Longrightarrow $$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 - \left( x^0 \right)^2 \leq \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \Longrightarrow $$
$$ \left( \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \right)^2 \leq \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \tag{5} $$
Note that, from $(3)$
$$ x'^0 = \Lambda^0_0 x^0 + \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i \Longrightarrow \sum_{i=1}^3 \Lambda^0_i x^i = x'^0 - \Lambda^0_0 x^0 $$
Sobstituting in $(5)$
$$ \left( x'^0 - \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \leq \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \Longrightarrow $$
$$ \left( x'^0 \right)^2 - 2 x'^0 \Lambda^0_0 x^0 + \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \leq \left( \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right)^2 \Longrightarrow x'^0 \left( x'^0 - 2 \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \right) \leq 0 \tag{6} $$
Now the orthochronous contition is both necessary and sufficient not to reflect time:
$$ \mathrm{sgn}\left( x'^0 \right) = \mathrm{sgn}\left( x^0 \right) \Longleftrightarrow \textrm{"orthochronous condition on } \Lambda \textrm{"}$$
Less formally: the past remains the past and the future remains the future if and only if the orthochronous condition is enforced on $\Lambda$.
Proof that: $ \mathrm{sgn}\left( x'^0 \right) = \mathrm{sgn}\left( x^0 \right) \Longrightarrow \Lambda^0_0 > 0$ :
a. The future remains the future: $x^0 > 0$ (hence, for hypothesis, $ \mathrm{sgn}\left( x'^0 \right) = \mathrm{sgn}\left( x^0 \right) \Longrightarrow x'^0 > 0 $). From $(6)$:
$$ x'^0 - 2 \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \leq 0 \overset{x^0, x'^0 > 0}{\Longrightarrow} -2\Lambda^0_0 < 0 \Longrightarrow \Lambda^0_0 > 0 $$
b. The past remains the past: $x^0 < 0$. The proof is similar.
Proof that: $ \Lambda^0_0 > 0 \Longrightarrow \mathrm{sgn}\left( x'^0 \right) = \mathrm{sgn}\left( x^0 \right) $ :
a. If $x'^0 > 0$:
$$ x'^0 - 2 \Lambda^0_0 x^0 \leq 0 \overset{x^0, x'^0 > 0}{\Longrightarrow} -2\Lambda^0_0 x^0 < 0 \Longrightarrow x^0 < 0 \Longrightarrow \mathrm{sgn}\left( x'^0 \right) = \mathrm{sgn}\left( x^0 \right) $$
b. if $x'^0 < 0$: the proof is similar.
Therefore the orthochronous condition $\Lambda^0_0 > 0$ is proven. $\blacksquare$
Note that, from $(1.1)$ - however the same could be derived from $(1.2))$ -
$$ \left\vert \Lambda^0_0 \right\vert = \sqrt{1 + \sum_{i=1}^3 \left( \Lambda_i^0 \right)} \Longleftrightarrow \Lambda^0_0 > 0$$
Then
$$ \Lambda^0_0 = \sqrt{1 + \sum_{i=1}^3 \left( \Lambda_i^0 \right)} \Longrightarrow \Lambda^0_0 \geq 1 $$
which is a stricter form for the orthochronous condition.
At this point it is possible to conclude that
$$ \left.\begin{matrix}
\left.\begin{matrix}
\Lambda^T \eta \Lambda = \eta \Rightarrow \Lambda \in O(1,3) \textrm{, rotations and reflections}\\
\mathrm{det} \Lambda = +1 \textrm{, proper condition: no spatial reflections}
\end{matrix}\right\} \Rightarrow \Lambda \in SO(1,3)\\
\\
\Lambda^0_0 \geq 1 \textrm{, orthochronous condition: no time reflections}
\end{matrix}\right\} \Rightarrow \Lambda \in SO^+(1,3) $$
Let me know if there are some errors. Hope this answer could help in the future!