I am reading these lecture notes, section 2.7.1.
The general dissipation function is given via a dissipative force:
$$ \vec{F}^{D} = -\mu(v)\frac{\vec{v}}{v} \tag{2.269} $$
The Professors references A. I. Lurie, Analytical Mechanics (Springer, 2002) and E. Minguzzi, European Journal of Physics 36, 035014 (2015) for this general dissipation function.
Lurie does not derive this relation and Minguizzi does not reference it.
Intuitively, this is indeed a velocity dependent function. If the environment is static then:
$$ \vec{v} = \dot{\vec{r}} \tag{2.270} $$
Then the equation is: $$ \vec{F}^{D} = -\mu(v)\frac{\dot{\vec{r}}}{v} $$
I can understand that the dissipation coefficient is assumed to be dependent on velocity, but I do not understand why velocity is divided by its magnitude other than to normalize it in the direction it is acting.
Is it correct to read Eq. 2.269 as "The dissipation force is equal to the negative speed dependent friction coefficient times the unit vector in the direction of movement."