We can easily compute the lagrangian, $$ \mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}M \dot{r}^2+\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{r}^2+r^2\dot{\theta}^2)+Mg(l-r)$$A mass $m$ is free to slide on a table and is connected by a string, which passes through a hole in the table, to a mass $M$ which hangs below. Assume that $M$ moves in a vertical line only, and assume that the string always remains taut.
If the table surface is frictionless, we can obtain the equation of motion as follows:
$$ \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{q_i}}=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial q_i} $$
Here degrees of freedom is $2$, so $i=0,1$ and $q_0=r, q_1=\theta$
But, if there exists a surface friction coefficient $\mu$ (independent of velocity), how can I include the rotational friction in the equations of motion? Since $\mu$ is independent of velocity, we can use dissipation function, $\mathcal{D_i}=c_i\dot{q_i}$
Then the modified equations of motion become,
$$ \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{q_i}}=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial q_i} - \frac{\partial \mathcal{D_i}}{\partial \dot{q_i}}, \hspace{10mm} i=0, 1$$
Therefore, $$ \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{q_i}}=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial q_i} - c_i, \hspace{10mm} i=0, 1$$
Now, my question is how $c_1,c_2$ are related to $\mu$?
Can we say $c_1=c_2=\mu mg$?
For simplification, we can assume both the mass are point mass, the hole is also like a point and the string has zero radius. My confusion actually derives from how to distribute frictions in tangential and normal direction. Sorry for that.