I have three questions about page 409 of Peskin and Schroeder.
First, they state that the diagram
where $\Delta = m_f^2 - x(1-x)p^2|_{m_f=0}$, has a pole at $d=2$ “corresponding to the quadratically divergent mass renormalization.” If I understand correctly, the expression (12.32) evaluated at the renormalization scale $p^2 = -M^2$ should cancel the “propagator counterterm” $(p^2\delta_Z - \delta_m)$. Is the “quadratically divergent mass renormalization” $\delta_m = m_0^2Z - m^2$? Why is it quadratically divergent at $d=2$? In general, if the one-loop correction to the propagator as a function of the parameter $d$ has poles in the complex planes, which poles should we cancel with a counterterm and why? To define the counterterms, shouldn’t we be evaluating (12.32) and subsequent higher-order loop corrections all at $d=4$?
Second, why is the expression (12.32) at $d=4$ equal to
$$-p^2\left(\frac{1}{2-d/2} + \log\frac{1}{-p^2} + C\right)?\tag{12.33}$$
Third, why can the last expression be simplified to
$$-p^2\left(\log\frac{\Lambda^2}{-p^2}+C\right)?\tag{12.34}$$