3
$\begingroup$

I'm confused by the meaning of the field strength renormalization on page 237 of Peskin and Schroeder. In it, they define the physical mass $m$ of the unstable particle by $$m^2-m_0^2-\operatorname{Re} M^2(m^2)=0\tag{7.58}$$ where $m_0$ is the bare mass and $M^2(m^2)$ the 1PI self energy. They then say that the pole is displaced from the real axis as the propagator is given by $$G(p)\sim \frac{iZ}{p^2-m^2-iZ\operatorname{Im} M^2(p^2)}.\tag{p.237}$$ My confusion is that the field strength renormalization $Z$ here is not equal to the residue of the pole. Given that I thought this was the definition of $Z$, what is it even supposed to mean here?

A very similar question was already asked here, but this doesn't solve the problem; it seems like Peskin and Schroeder just arbitrarily define $Z$ by expanding around the physical mass, whereas it should be equal to the residue found by expanding around the pole.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

The definition has no conflicts in Peskin and Schroeder, and the appearance of $Z$ in the denominator only affect the position of the pole, that is, it shift the pole from real axis.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.