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Given the finite conformal transformations

Test

My simple, and really algebraric, question is, how do you actually compute $\text{exp}(ia^\mu P_\mu)$? What I have done: $$e^{a^\mu\partial_\mu}x^\nu=(1+a^\mu\partial_\mu+O(\partial^2))x^\nu=x^\nu+a^\mu\delta_\mu^\nu=x^\nu+a^\nu.$$ So far so good. $$e^{i\alpha D}x^\nu=(1+\alpha x^\mu\partial_\mu+O(\partial^2))x^\nu=x^\nu+\alpha x^\nu=(1+\alpha)x^\nu.$$ Is it correct that there doesn't need to be a 1-1 correspondence between generators and transformations? Like $e^{\alpha D}x^\mu$ does not generate $\alpha x^\mu$.

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    $\begingroup$ Your action of $D$ is incorrect. The corrections are $O((x \cdot \partial)^2)$ which contains a linear term as well so act non-trivially on $x^\nu$. You cannot neglect them. PS - you need $( x \cdot \partial )^n x^\mu = x^\mu$ for any $n$. $\endgroup$
    – Prahar
    Commented Oct 22, 2021 at 12:50
  • $\begingroup$ Thats only because we're in euclidean spacetime, right? Isn't the correction $(x^\mu\partial_\mu)^2$? $\endgroup$
    – 11Elves
    Commented Oct 22, 2021 at 16:18
  • $\begingroup$ No. It holds in any signature. There are infinitely many terms in the correction. The exponential function has a whole Taylor expansion that you need to use to derive the action in D. you can’t just stop at the linear or quadratic level. $\endgroup$
    – Prahar
    Commented Oct 22, 2021 at 16:29

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Read up on the Lagrange shift operator, essentially a formal summary of the Taylor expansion. You know its result given your summary of translations.

For just one variable, you found $$ e^{a\partial_x} f(x) = f(x+a). $$

Now note for $y\equiv \ln x$, $$ e^{ax \partial_x} f(x) ~~~\leadsto \\ e^{a \partial_y} f(e^y) =f(e^{y+a})=f(e^a~ x), $$ so your $\alpha=e^a$.

You can take it from here, appreciating D is scaling only the rotationally invariant "radius" of $x^\mu$.

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