Working through chapters 6 through 8 in Srednicki's "quantum field theory", I am having some trouble conceptually understanding what is happening when we take time ordered products of operators in expectation values.
For example, when considering the path integral of a free field theory what I picture the functional integral doing is providing an amplitude for the ground state to ground state transition. That is:
$$ Z_0 (J) = <0|0>_J = \int \mathcal{D} \phi \; exp[i \int d^4 x [L_0 + J\phi]].$$
Without the sources, we would have unity: $<0|0>_{J=0} = 1$, since without the presence of an external force a system in its ground state will remain in its ground state. However, once we add sources, the system has the potential to be driven from the ground state and so this functional integral is no longer necessarily unity. As we develop the mathematics, we see that the path integral can be expressed in terms of a propagator that describes this new ground state to ground state amplitude. Everything good so far?
What I'm struggling with then is what is going on when after all of this we take the following:
$$<0|T\phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)|0>.$$
After consulting Zee's book I believe I am to interpret this as the following. We are now asking for the probability amplitude for a ground state to ground state transition, where in which within the ground state a disturbance in the field is brought into play at $x_1$ and then propagates to $x_2$ - or perhaps instead at some time $t_1$ in the ground state there is a disturbance in the field at $x_1$, and then at some later time $t_2 > t_1$ there is a disturbance at $x_2$. We then calculate this using functional derivatives of the generating functional with respect to now the sources, since - as I understand - the sources are responsible for creating the disturbances.
Is this the correct interpretation? I think some of my difficulty lies in the propagator being present already in $ Z_0 (J) = <0|0>_J$, although in my mind nothing is propagating yet until we consider something like $<0|T\phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)|0>$, but this could just be a misunderstanding in the language choice.