In the derivation of the Maxwell stress tensor, we see, like here (or in Jackson's Classical Electrodynamics), the charge density $\rho$ upon which $\textbf{E}$ and $\textbf{B}$ are acting being replaced by $\nabla \cdot \textbf{E}$:
$1$. Starting with the Lorentz force law $$\mathbf{F} = q(\mathbf{E} + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})$$ the force per unit volume is $$\mathbf{f} = \rho\mathbf{E} + \mathbf{J} \times \mathbf{B}$$ $2$. Next, $ρ$ and $J$ can be replaced by the fields $\textbf{E}$ and $\mathbf{B}$, using Gauss's law and Ampère's circuital law: $$\mathbf{f} = \epsilon_0\left(\color{red}{\boldsymbol{\nabla} \cdot \mathbf{E}}\right)\mathbf{E} + \frac{1}{\mu_0}\left(\boldsymbol{\nabla} \times \mathbf{B}\right) \times \mathbf{B} - \epsilon_0\frac{\partial\mathbf{E}}{\partial t} \times \mathbf{B}\, $$
Why do we have any right to replace $\rho$ by $\boldsymbol{\nabla} \cdot \mathbf{E}$? If we do so, then aren't we saying the field that is acting upon $\rho$ is the field generated by $\rho$ itself?