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On page 79 Sakurai (2nd edition) states:

"As we sum over many terms with oscillating time dependence of different frequencies, a strong cancellation is possible for moderately large values of $t$. We expect the correlation amplitude that starts with unity at $t=0$ to decrease in magnitude with time."

Question:

  • Why is after equation $(2.1.68)$ written that a strong cancellation is possible for moderately large values of $t$? How can I see that mathematically?

  • Why should the correlation amplitude decrease in magnitude?

As far as I understand, the oscillation increases with the constant $t$, because we are in the "energy-space" and energy is the variable.

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  • $\begingroup$ Sakurai tells you why. He goes out of his way to provide an archetypical example for the rest of p79 and p80, illustrating just that. This is the recurrent theme of cancelling incoherent oscillations permeating QM and yielding the classical limit in the functional integral, no? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 22, 2020 at 18:35
  • $\begingroup$ Closed Duplicate. The point of the closing was to help you think of what it is you are seeking. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 22, 2020 at 18:36

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  • For $t=0$ the oscillating term $\exp(- i \Delta E t /\hbar)$ is equal to one for all $\Delta E$. Hence, all oscillators are in-phase for $t=0$.
  • However, if $t$ increases, the phase of each oscillator is given by $\Delta E t /\hbar$. Hence, as $t$ increases the phases of the oscillators become "scambled" -- they behave as if they were random.

The following plot shows the sum $$ y = \sum_{i=1}^{100} \cos(2\pi f_i t) $$ where $f_i = i \cdot f_0$ and $f_0$ is once $0.01Hz$ and the second time $0.02Hz$. oscillatorSuperpositions

We see, that this function behaves as advertised: At $t=0$ the oscillators are in phase. Thus, they are correlated and we obtain a peak, which is independent of $f_0$. However, as time increases the oscillators are not synchronised. Therefore, the amplitude decreases. The "decay" is faster for the larger frequency, $f_0 = 0.02Hz$.

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