I'm looking for clarification re: the 'classical' matrix expression for the Maurer-Cartan form
$$g^{-1} dg$$
(I have seen the related posts, they don't answer my specific question.)
Specifically I am confused about $dg$. I read in, e.g. Sharpe's book 'Differential Geometry', that we
Regard g in $GL_n(R)$ as 'the general point', that is, $g$ is the identity map on $GL_n(R)$. Then $dg$ is the identity map on the tangent bundle.
Again, in Frankel's 'Geometry of Physics' I read that
$dg$ takes $Y$ at $g$ into $Y$ and $g^{-1}$ takes $Y$ back to $e$.
where (I believe) Y is understood to be an element of the tangent space to the Lie group manifold $G$ at the point $g$.
My specific question is why do we bother with this identity map, i.e. why map the object Y to itself before mapping it back to the identity via $g^{-1}$? Why not just apply the left-multiplication $g^{-1}$ to the object directly?
Is it as simple as that we have to map the tangent vector to a matrix first, to put it in matrix form?