In Einstein’s model of solid, each atom in the solid is considered to be an independent three-dimensional quantum harmonic oscillator with characteristic frequency $ω$ that is constant. Each degree of freedom as a separate one-dimensional harmonic oscillator and the energy levels are familiar: $ E_n=(n+1/2)ℏω $. Ignoring the zero-point energy as an irrelevant constant term, we take the energy levels as $E_n= n ℏω $. The partition function for a single 1d oscillator is: $Z_1=1/(1−\exp(−βℏω))$. The mean number of phonon is $<n>=1/(\exp(βℏω)−1)$. It is clearly the Bose-Einstein statistics with zero chemical potential.
However, the free energy is: $$F=−3Nβ^{−1} \log Z_1=3Nβ^{−1}\log(1−\exp(−βℏω)).$$ The chemical potential $$μ=F/N=3 β^{−1}\log(1−\exp(−βℏω)) $$ which is nonzero. This nonzero chemical potential is given in many textbooks (such as Pathria 3rd ed, Pauli, etc.) to discuss the solid-vapor phase transition.
Major question: Why the chemical potential of phonon gas in Einstein 's solid model is not zero?
Minor question: In Einstein’s model of solid, the pressure is zero. But during the solid-vapor phase transition, the vapor pressure is never zero! The condition for phase transition requires that the solid pressure is equal to vapor pressure.