I have a question on the context of Maxwell construction, spinodal lines. In this pdf https://www.uam.es/personal_pdi/ciencias/evelasco/master/tema_III.pdf they first compute the Van der Waals model that give them the curves $P(T,V)$.
And then they are able to compute the free energy $F$ and the Gibbs energy $G$.
They have thus the curves in black :
But then they remark that between a and b the compressibility $\kappa_T=-\frac{1}{V}\frac{\partial V}{\partial P}$ in negative, which reflects an instability. This instability is also reflected in the concavity of the Free energy as $\frac{\partial^2 F}{\partial V^2}=\frac{1}{V \kappa_T}$
They use this remark to say that we can't have thermodynamic equilibrium here.
Thus, we do a Maxwell construction that will correct the behavior between a and b. And in practice it will modify the curve between 1 and 2.
The Maxwell construction is from what I understood, based on the fact that :
- we want the same pressure at the beginning (point 1) and at the end (point 2) of the phase transition (eq 3.38 of the article) : $\frac{\partial F}{\partial V}_1 = \frac{\partial F}{\partial V}_2$
- we want this pressure to be constant during all the phase transition (eq 3.39) : $\frac{\partial F}{\partial V}_1 = \frac{\partial F}{\partial V}_2=P_2=\frac{F_1-F_2}{V_1-V_2}$
First question :
How can we understand well the argument behind the Maxwell construction ? Is it because the Van der Waals model is wrong during the phase transition, but good elsewhere. Then we have to locally correct it using the experimental knowledge (or at least an external knowledge) that the pressure is constant during the phase transition ? Thus it can be understood as a "correction" we do on the model.
If I am right with what is above, then I don't understand the equation (3.40).
Indeed, they want to compute $F_1-F_2$ to be able to know $P_{coex}=P_1=P_2$ by using (3.39). But, to compute this difference they use the pressure given by the Van der Waals model.
Second question
How can we use the pressure law given by the Van Der waals model in the phase transition zone to compute $F_1-F_2$ if this model is precisely wrong in this zone ? (this assume I was right with the guess in my first question, else the question is not relevant anymore)