Does saying that the Dirac equation is invariant under Lorentz transformations is the same as saying that it is Lorentz covariant?
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$\begingroup$ I would think so. $\endgroup$– Mozibur UllahCommented Dec 14, 2017 at 18:20
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3$\begingroup$ Related: Invariance, covariance and symmetry $\endgroup$– Alfred CentauriCommented Dec 14, 2017 at 18:23
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