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What does it mean for a tensor of rank N to be Lorentz covariant. For a scalar (rank 0) it simply means that it is Lorentz invariant, in other words it remains unchanged under Lorentz transformations. For a (four-)vector is means that its inner product ($v^\mu v_\mu$) is Lorentz invariant scalar. Does this apply to all higher rank tensors? In other words, is it both necessary and sufficient for any tensor's inner product to Lorentz invariant scalar in order for the tensor to be considered a Lorentz covariant?

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  • $\begingroup$ Something that's not a scalar is by definition not Lorentz invariant. $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 22:09
  • $\begingroup$ @ConnorBehan, Oops, I meant covariance. $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 22:23
  • $\begingroup$ If you remember that: 1. tensors are invariant; 2. they can be written as a linear combinations of base vectors (the coefficients of the linear combinations are defined the components of the tensor w.r.t. a basis); 3. you usually only write components, but you should remember that these components are relative to a basis; everything should follow quite naturally. See my answer below $\endgroup$
    – basics
    Commented May 15 at 22:51

1 Answer 1

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Tensor as invariant mathematical objects. Tensors are invariant by their very nature/definition: their the mathematical objects meant to write invariant equations. They can be written as the linear combination of base vectors, and the coefficients are called components of the tensor w.r.t. that basis. For a tensor to be invariant, components and vectors of the basis follow inverse transformations.

Some details. If you write a tensor $\mathbb{A}$ of order $N$ using a basis $\mathscr{B} = \{ \mathbf{b}_n\}_{n=1:N}$ of a space $V$ as

$$\mathbb{A} = A^{n_1 \dots n_N} \mathbf{b}_{n_1} \otimes \dots \otimes \mathbf{b}_{n_N} \ ,$$

being $A^{n_1 \dots n_N} $ the components of tensor $\mathbb{A}$ w.r.t. the tensor base build with vectors of $\mathscr{B}$.

The vector of another basis $\mathscr{\tilde{B}} = \{ \tilde{\mathbf{b}}_m \}_{m=1:N}$ can be written as a linear combination of the vector of base $\mathscr{B}$ as

$$\tilde{\mathbf{b}}_m = T^{n}_m \mathbf{b}_n \ ,$$

being $T^{n}_{m}$ the matrix for the change of basis, collecting the coefficients of the linear combinations. In this new basis, the tensor reads

$$\mathbb{A} = \tilde{A}^{m_1 \dots m_N} \tilde{\mathbf{b}}_{m_1} \otimes \dots \otimes \tilde{\mathbf{b}}_{m_N} \ ,$$

and using the relation between the vectors of the bases,

$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb{A} & = \tilde{A}^{m_1 \dots m_N} \left( T^{n_1}_{m_1} \mathbf{b}_{n_1} \right) \otimes \dots \otimes \left( T^{n_N}_{m_N}\mathbf{b}_{n_N} \right) = \\ & = \underbrace{\tilde{A}^{m_1 \dots m_N} T^{n_1}_{m_1} \dots T^{n_N}_{m_N} }_{=A^{n_1 \dots n_N}} \mathbf{b}_{n_1} \otimes \dots \otimes \mathbf{b}_{n_N} \ ,\end{aligned}$$

it's possible to find the rule of transformation of the components, resulting from the comparison of the expressions of the same tensor in 2 different basis,

$$A^{n_1 \dots n_N} = \tilde{A}^{m_1 \dots m_N} T^{n_1}_{m_1} \dots T^{n_N}_{m_N} \ .$$

or

$$\tilde{A}^{m_1 \dots m_N} = A^{n_1 \dots n_N} \tilde{T}^{m_1}_{n_1} \dots \tilde{T}^{m_N}_{n_N} \ ,$$

being $\tilde{T}_i^k T_k^j = \delta_{i}^j$.

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  • $\begingroup$ The main motivation for my question are covariant equations like $\frac{\mathrm{d} p^\alpha}{\mathrm{d} \tau} = q F^{\alpha \beta} U_\beta$ which are called "covariant" in literature, I just wanted to confirm that mathematical objects called Lorentz covariant in this context are tensors of various ranks whose inner product is invariant under Lorentz transformations. $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 23:00
  • $\begingroup$ in literature, these are covariant (w.r.t. what?) components of a tensor (and thus invariant) equation, namely $\nabla_{\alpha} F^{\alpha \beta} \mathbf{b}_{\beta} = \mu_0 J^{\beta} \mathbf{b}_{\beta} $, or in abstract form (w/o explicitly writing components) $\underline{\nabla} \cdot \underline{\underline{F}} = \mu_0 \underline{J}$. $\endgroup$
    – basics
    Commented May 15 at 23:04
  • $\begingroup$ how do I test where an arbitrary n-dimensional matrix is Lorentz invariant n-rank tensor? $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 23:09
  • $\begingroup$ That's not how it works. If you write an arbitrary element of $\mathbb{R}^4$, it could be a Lorentz vector if all entries are spacetime co-ordinates. It cold also be an artificial grouping of four Lorentz scalars if they are masses. $\endgroup$ Commented May 16 at 0:48
  • $\begingroup$ @МікаласКaрыбутоў Thing being Lorentz invariant is not a property of a set of numbers (single, vector, matrix), but of a physical quantity that is defined in all reference frames. Such quantity may be represented as a set of numbers in any given reference frame, and when these set of numbers between frames are related via Lorentz transformation, then the quantity is a four-tensor (scalar, four-vector, 4x4 four-tensor, or higher rank). When the repr. is the same in all frames (e.g. electric charge of a particle, or a unit tensor with repr. $\delta^\mu_\nu$), then it is Lorentz invariant. $\endgroup$ Commented May 16 at 1:03

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