I am studying the chapter on topology of Altland and Simons' Condensed Matter Field Theory and came across this discussion:
Consider a field theory such that $ \mathbf{n}: S^2 \mapsto S^2, \mathbf{x} \mapsto \mathbf{n}(\mathbf{x})$ and that $|\mathbf{n}|=1$. The relevant homotopy group is $\pi_2(S^2) \simeq \mathbb{Z}$. The action is given by
\begin{equation} S[\mathbf{n}] = \dfrac{i\theta}{4\pi} \int dx_1 dx_2 \{ \mathbf{n} \cdot (\partial_1 \mathbf{n} \times \partial_2 \mathbf{n} ) \} \end{equation}
Suppose the variation on $\mathbf{n}$ is such that $\mathbf{n} \rightarrow \mathbf{n} + \epsilon \mathbf{m}$, where $\epsilon$ is infinitesimal and $\mathbf{m}$ is arbitrary vector field. The variation is presented differently in the book.
Since $|\mathbf{n}|=1$, we have $\mathbf{m}\cdot \mathbf{n}=0$, i.e. they are perpendicular, and that $\epsilon^2 \simeq 0$. Moreover, $\partial_i \mathbf{n} \perp \mathbf{n}$ for $i=1,2$.
Here's my question: I managed to end up with
\begin{equation} \delta S = \dfrac{3 i\theta}{4\pi} \int dx_1 dx_2 \{ \epsilon \mathbf{m} \cdot (\partial_1 \mathbf{n} \times \partial_2 \mathbf{n} ) \} + \dfrac{ i\theta}{4\pi} \int dx_1 dx_2 \{\epsilon \partial_1 (\mathbf{n} \cdot ( \mathbf{m} \times \partial_2 \mathbf{n} )) + \epsilon \partial_2 (\mathbf{n} \cdot ( \partial_1 \mathbf{n} \times \mathbf{m})) \} \end{equation}
The first integral, which is only the term shown in the book, is obviously zero since $\mathbf{m} \perp \mathbf{n}$ while $(\partial_1 \mathbf{n} \times \partial_2 \mathbf{n} ) \parallel \mathbf{n}$.
The second integral must also be zero as it is argued that the action above is insensitive to small variations, but I cannot figure out the argument.