We know that Euclidean QFT originates from path integral formalism of $$\langle\phi_f|e^{-\beta\hat{H}}|\phi_x\rangle.\tag{1}$$ We can understand that for $\beta\rightarrow\infty$, we can obtain the ground state via: $$\langle\phi_f|e^{-\beta\hat{H}}|\phi_x\rangle=\sum_n\langle\phi_f|e^{-\beta\hat{H}}|n\rangle\langle n|\phi_x\rangle\stackrel{\beta\rightarrow\infty}{=}e^{-E_0\cdot\infty}\langle\phi_f|n\rangle\langle n|\phi_x\rangle.$$
This is easy to understand. When we take $\beta\rightarrow\infty$, equivalently, we are taking the temperature to zero ($\beta$ is the inverse temperature in the thermal partition functional), therefore, all states are frozen to the ground state. All this stuff is rigorous enough to my taste. But in many cases, people are saying that Euclidean QFT also describes the tunneling in real Minkowski spacetime such as in instanton contex. However, I never saw a rigour proof of such statement. Minkowski QFT is related to Euclidean QFT neither by coordinate transformation nor by analytical continuation:
- If we view $t=-i\beta$ as a coordinate transformation, then $t$ and $\beta$ can not be simultaneously real
- if we view Euclidean QFT as the analytical continuation of Minkowski QFT, then $\phi(t,\vec{x})$ and $\phi(\beta,\vec{x})$ can not be simultaneously real.
What I think is the rigour way to treat Euclidean QFT is that, we shall view it simply a path integral formalism of Eq.(1) and is derived independently of Minkowski QFT which is derived from $$\langle\phi_f|e^{-iHt}|\phi_i\rangle.$$
Then, how can we justify the statement that the Euclidean QFT describes the tunneling in Minkowski spacetime?