I'm confused about the application of Faraday's Law in to situations with a circuit made of two loops that enclose two different changing magnetic fluxes. Which of the two is correct?
- The emf in each loop depends only on the changing magnetic flux enclosed in that loop.
- The emf in each loop depends both on the changing magnetic flux enclosed in that loop and also on the changing flux enclosed by the surrounding loops.
I'll made an example to show the two options. Consider the circuit made of two loops.
In case A each encloses a different solenoid, where magnetic field $B$ changes in time (and is directed in two different ways).
In case B only one of the loop encloses a changing magnetic flux, since there is no left solenoid.
In case A, according to 1., the current in the left loop should depend only on the magnetic field of the left solenoid.
And in case B, the total emf in the left loop should be zero since there is no changing magnetic flux enclosed by left loop, that is $$\textrm{emf}_{\mathrm{left \, loop}}=\oint_{\mathrm{left \,\, loop}} E_{\mathrm{induced}} \cdot \mathrm dl =-\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \Phi_\textrm{enclosed}=0$$
Nevertheless in both cases one branch (the one with $R_2$) is in common between the two loops and there the emf should be affected also by the right solenoid (and be nonzero in case $B$). This leads to contradiction with things said above.
So is 1. or 2. correct?