When a bicycle (of gross vehicle mass $m$) accelerates ($a$) forward, such that both the wheels are in pure rolling (no slipping), then: static friction ($f_{s1}$) acts on the front wheel backwards, static friction ($f_{s2}$) acts on the rear wheel forward, rolling friction ($f_{r1} \& f_{r2}$) acts on both the wheels backwards. Thus, $$m.a = f_{s1} - f_{s2} - f_{r1} - f_{r2}$$
Am I correct?
My main doubt is whether the static friction force on the front wheel acts backward or not?