The independent boson model consists of the following Hamiltonian: $$ H_s = E \sigma^z $$ $$ H_b = \sum_k \omega_k b^{\dagger}_kb_k $$ $$H_{sb} = \sigma^z \sum_k (g_k b_k + g_k^{\ast}b^{\dagger}_k).$$ The model describes a single spin-1/2 impurity with Pauli operators $\sigma^{x,y,z}$ linearly coupled to an infinity of bosonic modes $b_k$. Importantly, the interaction $H_{sb}$ commutes with $H_s$.
The model is exactly solvable by introducing a state-dependent displacement:
$$ U = \exp \left[ \sigma^z \sum_k (g_k^{\ast}b^{\dagger}_k - g_k b_k)\right],$$ leading to the transformed Hamiltonian $$U H U^{\dagger} = E^{\prime} \sigma^z + \sum_k \omega_k b^{\dagger}_kb_k + \mathrm{const.}$$ where $E^{\prime}$ is the renormalised impurity energy. Similar tricks allow one to compute time evolution etc. The solutions can be found in detail in Mahan's book Many-Particle Physics.
Note that there exists an equivalence between a spin-1/2 particle and a single fermionic mode, i.e. we can rewrite the above Hamiltonian by replacing $\sigma^z \to c^{\dagger} c$, where $\{c,c^{\dagger}\} = 1$ are fermionic ladder operators. The resulting model is equivalent up to a shift of the equilibrium position of the oscillators.
However, when $c$ is instead taken to be bosonic, the solution fails. The fermionic/spin solution relies on the fact that $(c^{\dagger}c)^2 = c^{\dagger}c$, which ultimately stems from the fact that the fermionic Hilbert space has 2 states. In contrast, the Hilbert space of a bosonic mode is infinite-dimensional.
Is the independent boson model always exactly solvable so long as the Hilbert space of the impurity is finite-dimensional?
I mean precisely the following: imagine replacing $\sigma^z$ with $S^z$, the $z$ projection of a spin with total angular momentum $S > 1/2$. Is the model exactly solvable? Constructive answers which describe the form of the solution would be great, or any references to where this problem has already been solved in the literature.