Let's have quasiclassical QM for centrally symmetric field $V(r)$. The Schroedinger equation for radial part of wavefunction $R_{n\ell}$ after substitution $u_{n\ell} = rR_{n\ell}$ takes the form
$$\begin{align}
u_{n\ell}{''} + k_{n\ell}^{2}u_{nl} =& 0, \cr
k_{n\ell}^{2} =& 2m\left(E_{n\ell} - V(r) - \frac{\ell(\ell + 1)}{2mr^{2}} \right).\end{align}
$$
I don't understand the reasoning for the Langer correction
$$\ell(\ell + 1) \to \left(\ell + \frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}.$$
The most of authors usually claim that it is important because we need that the phase of our function on infinity must coincide with phase of exact solution.
What phase is discussed in this statement? In terms of previous question, how to show that this replacement leads to correct phase?
References:
- L.D. Landau & E.M. Lifshitz, QM, Vol. 3, 3rd ed, 1981; $\S49$.