Consider the Harmonic oscillator.
Some considerations: $H_{xyz}=H$ is not a C.S.C.O. in $\mathcal{E}=\mathcal{E}_{xyz}$ by itself: even if we know the eigenvalue (the energy) of $H$ , we may not not the state of the system: e.g if $E=1$ , all we know is that the state is a linear combination of $\vert100\rangle,\vert010\rangle$ and $\vert001\rangle$ .
However, $\{H_{x},H_{y},H_{z}\}$ is a C.S.C.O. This is easy to see.
Now, $[H,L_{i}]=0$ since $H$ is rotationally invariant. One can prove that $\{H,L^{2},L_{z}\}$ is a C.S.C.O.
Thus, we get two basis for $\mathcal{E}$ : $\{\vert n_{x}\,n_{y}\,n_{z}\rangle\}$ and $\{\vert n,l,m\rangle\}$, one for each of the C.S.C.O.s found. We can of course go from one basis to the other.
A common question asked is: for a given n, what are the possible values of l?
I will try to answer this using a method which I haven't found anywhere, so I would like someone to confirm it.
For example, for $n=1$, I know that $\mathcal{E}(n=1)$ is three-dimensional, since it is spanned by $\{\vert100\rangle,\vert010\rangle,\vert001\rangle\}$. Thus, one of the following is true:
$$\mathcal{E}(n=1)=3\mathcal{E}(n=1,l=0)$$ or $$\mathcal{E}(n=1)=\mathcal{E}(n=1,l=1)$$
So, if I find one state of $\mathcal{E}(n=1)$ with $m=1$, then that state cannot belong to $\mathcal{E}(l=0)$ and so $\mathcal{E}(n=1)=\mathcal{E}(n=1,l=1)$ holds.
Another example: $n=2$ . I know that $\mathcal{E}(n=2)$ is six-dimensional, since it is spanned by $\{\vert200\rangle,\vert020\rangle,\vert002\rangle,\vert110\rangle,\vert101\rangle,\vert011\rangle\}$ . Thus, one of the following is true:
$$\mathcal{E}(n=2)=6\mathcal{E}(n=2,l=0)$$ or $$\mathcal{E}(n=2)=\mathcal{E}(n=2,l=0)\oplus\mathcal{E}(n=2,l=2)$$
So, if I find one state of $\mathcal{E}(n=2)$ with $m=-1$, for instance, then that state cannot belong to $\mathcal{E}(l=0)$ and so $\mathcal{E}(n=2)=\mathcal{E}(n=2,l=0)\oplus\mathcal{E}(n=2,l=2)$ holds.
Is this argument correct? The results are, but I'm not sure the reasoning is: I assumed that, if I have a state with a certain l in $\mathcal{E}(n)$ , then all the $2l+1$ states $\vert n,l,m\rangle$ are in $\mathcal{E}(n)$. I do not know how to justify this.
If the method or the question are still unclear, please tell me and I'll try to clarify them.
After reading what Emilio and ZeroTheHero and some other things, I tried another method which seems more general. Here it goes.
Let $$ \begin{cases} V_{1}=-\frac{a_{x}+ia_{y}}{\sqrt{2}}\\ V_{0}=a_{z}\\ V_{-1}=\frac{a_{x}-ia_{y}}{\sqrt{2}} \end{cases}\mbox{ and }\begin{cases} V_{1}^{\dagger}=-\frac{a_{x}^{\dagger}-ia_{y}^{\dagger}}{\sqrt{2}}\\ V_{0}^{\dagger}=a_{z}^{\dagger}\\ V_{-1}^{\dagger}=\frac{a_{x}^{\dagger}+ia_{y}^{\dagger}}{\sqrt{2}} \end{cases} $$
We have $$ [J_{z},V_{q}^{\dagger}]=q\hbar V_{q}^{\dagger} $$ $$ [J_{z},V_{q}]=q\hbar V_{q} $$ $$ [N,V_{q}^{\dagger}]=V_{q}^{\dagger} $$ $$ [N,V_{q}]=-V_{q} $$
So the “daggered” operators increase the eigenvalue $n$ of $N$ by one (and thus the energy by $\hbar\omega$ ), while the “undaggered” operators decrease it by one. Also, the $V_{q}^{(\dagger)}$ change the eigenvalue of J_{z} by $q\hbar$ .
With this in mind, we can face the problem.
Assumption: All states of the system can be obtained by applying these operators to the ground state $\vert0\rangle$ . I don't know why!-Please explain it if you do.
For $n=1$ , the biggest value for $m$ one can get for a state of $\mathcal{E}(n=1)$ is $1$, since $(V_{1}^{\dagger})^{1}\vert0\rangle$ is the only way to get the maximum $m$ while (increasing $n$ to $1$) by application of the operators defined above, and indeed $L_{z}V_{1}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle=\hbar V_{1}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle$ . Now, this state, having $m=1$ , must have $l\geq1$ . It cannot be $l>1$ since this would imply that I had states with $m>1$ (obtained by applying $L_{+}$ to $V_{1}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle$ ) in $\mathcal{E}(n=1)$ (the Hamiltonian commutes with $L_{+}$ because of rotational invariance and so does N ), which is absurd. For $m=0$ , we easily see that there is only one state: $V_{0}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle$ . Since there is only one, it must be the one of $\mathcal{E}(l=1)$ . There is no need to analyze other values for m (negative values will bring nothing new). In conclusion, the only value for $l$ for states with $n=1$ is $1$ .
Let us try something harder.
For $n=3$ , the biggest value for $m$ for a state of $\mathcal{E}(n=3)$ is three, corresponding to the state $(V_{1}^{\dagger})^{3}\vert0\rangle$ . Clearly, there are no other states with $m=3$ in $\mathcal{E}(n=3)$ . Just like before, this means that the space $\mathcal{E}(l=3)$ is in the direct sum decomposition of $\mathcal{E}(n=3)$ . Now, for $m=2$ we only have one state $V_{0}^{\dagger}(V_{1}^{\dagger})^{2}\vert0\rangle$ , so there is no $l=2$ representation in the direct product decomposition. For $m=1$ , we have $V_{-1}^{\dagger}(V_{1}^{\dagger})^{2}\vert0\rangle$ but also $(V_{0}^{\dagger})^{2}V_{1}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle$ , so there is one more representation (besides $l=2$ ) with states with $m=1$ . It can't be $l=2$ because there are no $m=2$ states. It is therefore an $l=1$ representation. Finally, for $m=0$ I only have two states: $V_{-1}^{\dagger}V_{0}^{\dagger}(V_{1}^{\dagger})^{1}\vert0\rangle$ and $(V_{0}^{\dagger})^{3} \vert0\rangle$ , which must belong to the two representations already found. Therefore, $l\in\{1,3\}$ .