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The basis functions of the 2D isotropic quantum harmonic oscillator are of the form

$$ \psi_{n,\ell} (r,\varphi) = A_{n\ell}(r)e^{i\ell\varphi}$$

where $A_{n\ell}(r) = \frac{\sqrt{2 \times p!}}{\sqrt{(p+\vert\ell\vert)!}} e^{-r^2/2} r^{\vert \ell \vert} L_p^{\vert \ell \vert}(r^2)$ where $p=\frac{n-\vert \ell \vert}{2}.$

They are e.g. derived in (2.10), (2.11) here in this reference.

I am now curious if one can derive the matrix elements

$$\langle \psi_{n,\ell}\vert T \vert \psi_{m,\ell'} \rangle$$

for the two operators $T = r^2$ and $T = e^{-i\varphi} (-i\frac{\partial}{\partial r} - \frac{3}{r} \frac{\partial}{\partial {\varphi}}).$ I somehow feel that these two things should be well-known but I could not find this online. Is this somehow easy? The involved integrals seems very delicate.

I would be very interested in getting the ladder operator representation mentioned in the comments to work, but I do not quite know how to set it up in this case for my operators.

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  • $\begingroup$ You might want to google Fock-Darwin states. See also $\endgroup$
    – Roger V.
    Commented Jan 28, 2023 at 14:18
  • $\begingroup$ What did you not like about my answer? $\endgroup$
    – Ghoster
    Commented Jan 31, 2023 at 4:24
  • $\begingroup$ I’ve deleted my lengthy, detailed answer since you didn’t accept it and didn’t award your bounty to either me or Christophe. I will assume that my answer was too flawed to remain. Your 100 points went “poof”, not to me. $\endgroup$
    – Ghoster
    Commented Feb 5, 2023 at 22:52

1 Answer 1

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The average $\langle r^2\rangle$ can be computed using Hellmann-Feynman theorem. Since the eigen-energies are $E_{p,l}=\hbar\omega(2p+|l|+1)$ with $p=(n-|l|)/2$, then $${\partial E_{p,l}\over\partial\omega} =\langle {\partial H\over\partial\omega}\rangle$$ gives $$\hbar(2p+|l|+1)=m\omega\langle r^2\rangle$$ and finally $$\langle r^2\rangle =\langle\psi_{p,l}| r^2|\psi_{p,l}\rangle ={\hbar\over m\omega}(2p+|l|+1)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ I don’t think your $n$ is the OP’s $n$. $\endgroup$
    – Ghoster
    Commented Jan 25, 2023 at 6:50
  • $\begingroup$ You are right! I think that my quantum number $n$ is the one denoted $p$ by the OP. I will update my answer (not really an answer to the question...). Thanks for having pointed out the mistake! $\endgroup$
    – Christophe
    Commented Jan 25, 2023 at 7:54

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