In just about every text I read (online or in paper), when they handle the time-dependent Schrödinger Equation, I see something along the lines of "we always assume the potential is independent of time." Why is this? Are there not plenty of circumstances when this isn't valid? Aren't most experiments done with varying potentials (NMR for example, the magnetic field, which affects the potential, is changing in time)? Is this assumption made in textbooks just for pedagogical reasons, to make life easier?
If we don't make this assumption, then it seems to me that the Schrödinger equation is no longer separable and we can no longer just apply the time-evolution operator as is usually done (and the time-independent equation is no longer valid).
Perhaps tangential to the main question but: Also, if we want to solve it numerically, it seems to me we also can't simplify using split-step Fourier transforms or into a form handled by Runge-Kutta. Is this correct? I'm especially interested in exploring the numerical analysis, but I guess I should post that question in the scientific computing SE.
Of course, when I say "potential" I mean $V\left(\vec r, t\right)$ in the equation \begin{equation} i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Psi\left(\vec r, t\right) = \left[\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2+V(\vec r, t)\right]\Psi\left(\vec r, t\right) \end{equation} and the assumption whose justification I don't understand is $V\left(\vec r, t\right)=V\left(\vec r\right)$.