For $j=\frac{1}{2}, j'=\frac{1}{2}$ we have $$|11\rangle=|\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}\rangle$$ $$|10\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|-\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}\rangle+ |\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\rangle)$$ $$|10\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|-\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{2}\rangle- |\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\rangle)$$ $$|1-1\rangle=|-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\rangle$$
My book says that this proves that
$$\frac{1}{2}\otimes \frac{1}{2} = 1\oplus0$$
Now the way that I'd read this is that when we combine two spin $\frac{1}{2}$ particles, we can get total spin of either 1 or 0. I'm confused how the above shows this. I see that $m_{total}=1$ in the first equation, $m_{total}=0$ in the two middle equations, and $m_{total}=-1$ in the last equation. Which would make me think the direct sum should really be
$$\frac{1}{2}\otimes \frac{1}{2} = 1\oplus0\oplus -1$$
What's wrong here? Any help would be greatly appreciated!