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A magnetic monopole is a hypothetical particle with only one magnetic pole. Their magnetic fields would not be divergence-less. Predicted by certain modern theories, including string theory, supergravity, and various popular grand unified theories.

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Are magnetic charges compulsory in string theory?

The "charged branes" in superstring theory arise from the democratic formulation of the Ramond-Ramond fields, where to each "naive" Ramond potential $C_p$ (the "electric" potential) there is a dual po …
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3 votes
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Magnetic monopoles in 2D

Taking the dual of 2+1-dimensional electromagnetism and adding a source like in the question does not add magnetic monopoles or "magnetically charged matter" in the usual sense. In general d+1 dimensi …
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31 votes
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Why are magnetic monopoles "incompatible" with quantum mechanics?

The argument here is supposed to go something like this: Classical electrodynamics, as long as you don't insist on a Lagrangian formulation, is fully described by Maxwell's equations in terms of the …
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16 votes
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Magnetic monopoles in field theory

You cannot just add a term to the Lagrangian to give the usual electromagnetic gauge theory magnetic charge. The reason is rather simple: The equation of motion for a magnetic four-current $j_m$ is $\ …
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2 votes
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Some questions about gauge theory

None of these two phenomena are predictions in any sense: You cannot increase the charge of the monopole "steadily from zero". Dirac quantization means the electric as well as the magnetic charge ar …
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2 votes
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How to incorporate Dirac's magnetic monopole solution into a continuous magnetic charge dens...

No, there is no way to model continuous magnetic charge densities via Dirac monopoles. Dirac argument necessarily quantizes the allowed magnetic charges, and, crucially, at the position of the monopol …
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3 votes

Why magnetic monopole has't been shown in the particle physics's Standard Model context?

No elementary particle (in the sense of a particle that is the quantum of an elementary quantum field) may carry a "magnetic charge". The presence of a field "magnetically charged" under the $\mathrm{ …
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Coupling an electric charge to a gauge field. How is it done in this setup?

The "first-quantized setup" is the setup of quantum mechanics, where single particles are considered quantum objects, but fields like the electromagnetic field are still treated classically. However, …
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16 votes

Is there a topological difference between an electric monopole and an magnetic monopole?

The difference between the two arises because Maxwell's equations, while looking perfectly "equal", actually are not all of the same nature when we phrase electromagnetism in terms of a potential. If …
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6 votes

Magnetic monopole and vector potential

You seek a 1-form $A$ on $\mathbb{R} - \{0\}$ such that $\mathrm{d}A = B$. On all of $\mathbb{R} - \{0\}$, $\mathrm{d}B = 0$, so this could exist. But, since you have magnetic flux, you require that t …
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30 votes
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Does magnetic monopole violate $U(1)$ gauge symmetry?

No, a magnetic monopole a la the Dirac string does not "violate" gauge symmetry. Rather, the statement "we have a magnetic monopole" means only that we are forced to consider the gauge theory not on t …
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13 votes
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Is a magnetic monopole really necessary for charge quantization?

Yes, "quantization of charge" means that all charges are a multiple of some fundamental charge unit $e$. Of course, everything being made up of electrons and protons with a fixed charge explains quan …
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