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3 votes
1 answer
113 views

How does the $\not{\partial}$ work in the Dirac Lagrangian?

The Dirac Lagrangian (Density) is defined in the text "Quantum Field Theory, An Integrated Approach" by Fradkin as: $$\mathcal{L}=\bar{\Psi}\left(i\not{\partial}-m\right)\Psi\equiv \frac{1}{...
QPhysl's user avatar
  • 179
0 votes
0 answers
109 views

Dirac spinor and derivative

I have question about four-derivative on spinors. $$ \bar{\psi}\partial_\mu $$ Does the derivative act on the spinor psi bar? $$ (\bar{\psi}\partial_\mu)\psi $$ $$ \bar{\psi}\partial_\mu\psi $$ Is it ...
lalala's user avatar
  • 39
0 votes
1 answer
1k views

What is $D$ or $D$-with-a-slash-through-it in the Standard Model equation(s)?

In the mathematical formulation of the Standard Model, which I do not understand yet, there is a capital letter $D$ or $D$-with-a-slash-through-it that I can't find an explanation for. Flip Tanedo (a ...
Kurt Hikes's user avatar
  • 4,709
5 votes
1 answer
536 views

What is the definition of $\overleftrightarrow{\partial}$ in Dirac Lagrangian?

In my course, the teacher wrote the Dirac Lagrangian as : $$ \mathcal{L}=\frac{i}{2} \bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\overleftrightarrow{\partial_\mu} \psi -m \bar{\psi} \psi $$ I just would like to ...
StarBucK's user avatar
  • 1,560