Apologies for the additional question on a topic that seems to be queried relatively frequently in this forum -
I was unable to find an explicit answer to this specific question in searching physics stack exchange.
My question is the question in the Title of this post, but to ask it another way:
Suppose you have two entangled particles, that you have not observed/collapsed the wave function for. My (limited) understanding is that observing one particle collapses the wave function for both particles, providing you information about the state of both particles.
If you are the observer of particle "1", and particle "2" is not observable from your locality, is an observer in the locality of particle "2" aware that the wave function has been collapsed?
Thanks in advance for any insight you can provide! I was trying to read through this post which discusses the idea that entanglement is not really an active link and this thought experiment occurred to me - if there is no "real" link between two particles as a result of entanglement, then there would not necessarily be some property of the two particles that allowed you to determine whether or not the particle was observed or not - is that right?
E.g., for the observer in the locality of particle "2", there would ultimately be no way to determine whether or not the observer of particle "1" had observed the entangled particles or not. But if this is the case, how do we know the wave function of particle "2" collapses when particle 1 is observed? I.e., if we can't tell if a particle's entangled pair has been observed or not, how do we know the wave function for that particle has been collapsed? I suspect I'm attempting to assign innacurate classical descriptions to the behavior of quantum particles, and I'm hoping someone can help articulate the inaccuracies implicit in my examples above.