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The definition of a triple antisymmetrisation of a 3-rank tensor is defined as:

$$T_{[\mu\nu\rho]} = \frac{1}{6}(T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\nu\rho\mu}+T_{\rho\mu\nu}-T_{\nu\mu\rho}-T_{\mu\rho\nu} - T_{\rho\nu\mu})$$

On the other hand the triple symmetrisation is defined as:

$$T_{(\mu\nu\rho)} = \frac{1}{6}(T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\nu\rho\mu}+T_{\rho\mu\nu}+T_{\nu\mu\rho}+T_{\mu\rho\nu} + T_{\rho\nu\mu})$$

In textbook of Freedman & van Proeyen on Supergravity in equation (7.122) the 1. Bianchi identity is given as:

$$R_{\mu\nu\rho}^{~~~~~~~a} + R_{\nu\rho\mu}^{~~~~~~a} + R_{\rho\mu\nu}^{~~~~~~~a} = 0\tag{1} $$

If abreviated the identity is given as:

$$R_{[\mu\nu\rho]}^{~~~~~~~~~a}=0 \tag{A}$$

Why ?

Actually the Bianchi identity is half of the triple antisymmetrisation of a 3-rank +1 tensor, but it could also be seen as half of the triple symmetrisation of a 3-rank +1 tensor, i.e.

$$R_{(\mu\nu\rho)}^{~~~~~~~~~a}=0\tag{S}$$

For (A) to be true I would take (1), swap 2 adjacent indices, and substract the result from the original (1).

On the other hand, for (S) to be true I would take (1), swap 2 adjacent indices, and add the result to the original (1).

So I do not see the difference. However, if the Bianchi identity is used within a complicated expression, I guess, using one or the other form could lead to a very different result. What is going on here ?

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Recall that the Riemann tensor for any connection is alternating in its last two lower indices. This is just the very general fact that the curvature of a connection $\nabla$ in a vector bundle $(E,\pi,M)$ is an $\text{End}(E)$-valued $2$-form; the $2$-form nature is responsible for this alternating property. However, the Bianchi identity in $E=TM$ is only true for connections whose torsions are ‘nice enough’. The general equation is that if $\nabla$ is a connection on $TM$ and $d_{\nabla}$ denotes the exterior covariant derivative, then for any vectors $x,y,z\in T_pM$ \begin{align} R(x,y)z+R(y,z)x+R(z,x)y&=d_{\nabla}(\text{Tor}_{\nabla})(x,y,z), \end{align} where $\text{Tor}_{\nabla}:=d_{\nabla}(\text{id}_{TM})$ is the torsion of the connection (which is a $TM$-valued $2$-form on $M$). So, the first Bianchi identity holds if and only if $d_{\nabla}(\text{Tor}_{\nabla})=0$, i.e if and only if the torsion is $d_{\nabla}$-closed. This is of course the case if the torsion itself vanishes identically.

None of these things beyond my first sentence is really relevant to your question. I only mention them to highlight that the algebraic/first Bianchi identity is really a statement about the vanishing of the (exterior covariant) derivative of the torsion. In particular, this property is more special than the curvature simply being alternating in its last two lower slots (i.e it’s more special than simply being (an endomorphism-valued) $2$-form).


Now, let’s consider an arbitrary $(0,3)$ tensor $T$ which is alternating in its last two slots. Then, \begin{align} T_{[abc]}&:=\frac{1}{6}\left(T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\nu\rho\mu}+T_{\rho\mu\nu}-T_{\nu\mu\rho}-T_{\mu\rho\nu} - T_{\rho\nu\mu}\right)\\ &=\frac{1}{6}\left(2T_{\mu\nu\rho}+2T_{\nu\rho\mu}+2T_{\rho\mu\nu}\right)\\ &=\frac{1}{3}\left(T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\nu\rho\mu}+T_{\rho\mu\nu}\right). \end{align} On the other hand, $T_{(abc)}=0$ because there are three pairs of terms which cancel (e.g the $T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\mu\rho\nu}$ adds to $0$). Now, if we define the ‘first Bianchi-ization’ of a tensor $T$ that is alternating in the last two slots to be \begin{align} B[T]_{abc}:= T_{\mu\nu\rho}+T_{\nu\rho\mu}+T_{\rho\mu\nu}, \end{align} then we have that $B[T]_{abc}=3 T_{[abc]}$ and $T_{(abc)}=0$. Note that the second equality is a triviality due to $T$ being alternating in its last two slots, however $T_{[abc]}$ need not always vanish. Hence, the vanishing of $B[T]_{abc}$ is an extra non-trivial condition on $T$.

So, the first Bianchi identity $R_{[\mu\nu\rho]}^{a}=3 B[R]^a_{\,\mu\nu\rho}=0$ is a non-trivial property of the curvature which goes beyond simply $R^a_{\,\mu\nu\rho}=-R^a_{\,\mu\rho\nu}$, whereas the assertion $R^a_{\,(\mu\nu\rho)}=0$ is a simple corollary of the alternating nature. So, long story short, (A) is the Bianchi identity (for tensors alternating in their last two slots), while (S) is always true (for tensors alternating in their last two slots).


Edit: Remarks about indexing conventions.

If $\nabla$ is a connection in a vector bundle $(E,\pi,M)$, then the formula, where $X,Y$ are vector fields on $M$ and $\psi$ a smooth section of $E$, \begin{align} R(X,Y)\psi:=\nabla_X\nabla_Y\psi-\nabla_Y\nabla_X\psi-\nabla_{[X,Y]}\psi\tag{$*$} \end{align} defines $R$ as an $\text{End}(E)$-valued $2$-form on $M$. There are some books which define $R$ with an overall minus sign. So, at the level of endomorphism-valued $2$-forms, there are only two possible conventions.

In order to extract components, one should choose:

  • a local frame $\{\xi_1,\dots, \xi_n\}$ of vector fields on $M$ (often people use coordinate vector fields $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\mu}}$)
  • a local frame $\{e_1,\dots, e_k\}$ for the vector bundle $E$ (in the special case where $E=TM$, one has $k=n$, and by default one takes $\{e_1,\dots, e_n\}=\{\xi_1,\dots,\xi_n\}$). Also, let $\{\epsilon^1,\dots,\epsilon^k\}$ denote the dual coframe (i.e a local frame for $E^*$), defined such that $\epsilon^{i}(e_j)=\delta^i_{\,j}$.

With these local frames at hand one extracts the curvature components \begin{align} \epsilon^a\bigg(R(\xi_{\mu},\xi_{\nu})\cdot e_b\bigg).\tag{$**$} \end{align} There are now a bunch of different ways of typographically dressing up $R$ with indices in order to denote this particular expression… and this is of course super annoying when going from source to source (but atleast all the ones below use $(*)$):

  1. $R^a_{\,\,b\mu\nu}$ - Hawking and Ellis, MTW, Sachs and Wu use this convention (and this is the convention I’ve adopted in writing my answer).
  2. $R^{\,\,\,\,\,a}_{\mu\nu\,\,\,b}$ - this looks horrible to write (and type) which is why I’d never use this convention, but this is the convention adopted by Freedman, Van Proeyen.
  3. $R_{\mu\nu b}^{\,\,\,\,\,\,\, a}$ - this is the indexing convention used in John Lee’s Introduction to Riemannian Manifolds
  4. $R^a_{\,\,\mu\nu b}$ - this would have been my natural inclination to index things just based on how $(**)$ is written, and reading left-to-right, but I haven’t seen (or atleast don’t recall) any book using this convention. But convention (1) is the closest to this, hence why I prefer (1) over (2) and (3).

So, as @naturallyInconsistent mentions in the comment, with Freedman, Van Proeyen’s conventions, you should replace all instances of ‘last two lower indices’ in my answer above with ‘first two lower indices’. But, anyway, don’t let this distract you from the conceptual distinction of requiring $T_{(abc)}=0$ vs $B[T]_{abc}=0$; the former is trivially true, while the latter is not.

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  • $\begingroup$ Note to everybody: The OP wrote $R_{\mu\nu\rho}^{\quad\ a}$, which is thus antisymmetric in the first two indices by definition; it is the opposite convention to your $R^a_{\ \ \mu\nu\rho}$ $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 6 at 2:04
  • $\begingroup$ @naturallyInconsistent oh right, I didn’t carefully observe OP’s indexing; I’ll reword my answer shortly $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Commented Sep 6 at 2:19
  • $\begingroup$ There is no need to rework it; at this point in time, it seems like a reader should be made aware that there are different conventions, and thus that one should be proficient in switching between them if necessary. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 6 at 2:20
  • $\begingroup$ @naturallyInconsistent sure, I didn’t reword my initial answer, but (for my own sake) I edited with the various possible indexing conventions in play for the exact same quantity. $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Commented Sep 6 at 3:44
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    $\begingroup$ Absolutely wonderful. Take my upvote. I did not know that there were so many different conventions, only thought that there were two. The two are actually both natural in a sense; I'm sure you know of them, but for the other readers: If you take your derivatives like $\nabla_a\nabla_bT_c$ then you tend to pick $R_{abc}^{\quad\ d}$, whereas if you take your derivatives as $T_{c;b;a}$, then you tend to pick the MTW convention. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 6 at 4:42

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