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I was checking out this explanation on Harvard’s site about why the top of a falling chimney seems to fall faster than gravity (https://sciencedemonstrations.fas.harvard.edu/presentations/falling-faster-g), and it got me thinking.

If we consider the downward acceleration of the chimney's tip, shouldn't we include not just the vertical component of the tangential acceleration but also the vertical component of the radial acceleration? Am I missing something here? Any insights or clarifications would be greatly appreciated thanksenter image description here the derivation use these equations to get the angular acceleration $\alpha$ $$\begin{gathered}I \alpha=\frac{L}{2} m g \cos \theta \\ I=1 / 3 m L^2 \\ \end{gathered}$$

and then to get the vertical acceleration (direction of g,Y) use the downward component of the tangential acceleration $$a_t=L \alpha$$ which is $$a_Y=a_t \cos \theta=\ldots=\frac{3}{2} \cos ^2(\theta)$$

why not also add the radial acceleration's contribution to the Y-Component?

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  • $\begingroup$ Please include the relevant the relevant parts of the link in your post $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 17:40
  • $\begingroup$ Is the chimney stretching? How is there any radial acceleration of the tip of the chimney? $\endgroup$
    – DJohnM
    Commented Aug 23 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ @DJohnM The tip is moving in a circle, so there must be a radial component of the acceleration. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 18:26
  • $\begingroup$ By definition a circular motion has a CONSTANT radius. no? $\endgroup$
    – DJohnM
    Commented Aug 23 at 18:28
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    $\begingroup$ @DJohnM Radial acceleration doesn't necessarily mean a change in $r$. This is a common topic covered in introductory physics. You need radial acceleration for circular motion at a constant radius $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 18:29

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The radial acceleration depends on the angular velocity $\omega$ by $a_r=r\omega^2$. Therefore, when the rod is first released from rest, $a_r=0$. The analysis is considering the instant in time when the rod is first released, and they have set the initial angle so that the downward component of the acceleration (the acceleration is completely tangential at this instant) already starts off at g and will increase from there. This is sufficient to have the ball fall into the cup, so there is no need to look at the radial acceleration after the release.

You are correct though, to analyze the overall downward acceleration of the tip across the whole motion, one would need to consider the radial acceleration as well.

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If the vertical component of acceleration of the chimney tip is > g, the ball will be left above the tip. The chimney will exert no horizontal or vertical force on the ball. The ball will drop straight down.

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  • $\begingroup$ The OP is asking about analyzing the acceleration of the tip and why the link only considers the downward component of its tangential acceleration instead of the downward component of its total acceleration $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 17:50
  • $\begingroup$ The reason is the downward component of acceleration of the tip must be greater than the downward component (which is the total) of acceleration of the ball. $\endgroup$
    – mmesser314
    Commented Aug 23 at 17:54
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe we are reading it differently. I don't think the OP is concerned about the ball at all. The are asking about the analysis in the link looking at the rod itself $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 17:56
  • $\begingroup$ The total acceleration of the tip has a tangential and radial component, but the analysis only looks at the tangential component of the acceleration $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23 at 18:22
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The position vector to the tip is: \begin{align*} &\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \\ \end{bmatrix}= L\,\begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta) \\ \sin(\theta) \\ \end{bmatrix} \end{align*} form here you obtain the velocity and the acceleration

\begin{align*} &\begin{bmatrix} \dot X \\ \dot Y \\ \end{bmatrix}= L\,\dot{\theta}\begin{bmatrix} -\sin(\theta) \\ \cos(\theta) \\ \end{bmatrix}\\ &\begin{bmatrix} \ddot X \\ \ddot Y \\ \end{bmatrix}= L\,\ddot{\theta}\begin{bmatrix} -\sin(\theta) \\ \cos(\theta) \\ \end{bmatrix}+ L\,\dot{\theta}^2\begin{bmatrix} -\cos(\theta) \\ -\sin(\theta) \\ \end{bmatrix} \end{align*}

thus $~a_Y=\ddot{Y}~$ \begin{align*} &a_Y=L\,\ddot\theta\,\cos(\theta)\underbrace{-L\,\dot{\theta}^2\sin(\theta)}_{\text{ radial component}}\\ &\text{with }\quad,I\,\ddot{\theta}=-\frac{L}{2}\,m\,g\,\cos(\theta) \end{align*}

Simulation

enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ How does this answer the OPs question about why the link only considers the tangential component? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24 at 19:08

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