Consider a pure Yang-Mills lagrangian density $$\mathcal{L}=-\frac{1}{4}F^{\mu\nu}_aF^a_{\mu\nu}$$ with gauge group $U(2)$.
Take the generators for $U(2)$ to be $t_0$, $t_i \ i=1,...,3$ with commutation relations given by $$[t_0,t_i]=0$$ $$[t_i,t_j]=i\epsilon_{ijk}t_k$$ In particular $t_0$ is the generator of the $\mathfrak{u(1)}$ factor in the expansion $\mathfrak{u(2)}\simeq \mathfrak{u(1)}\times \mathfrak{su(2)}$ and $t_i$ are the generators of the Lie Algebra $\mathfrak{su(2)}$.
Now, in $d=3$ the field strenght Hodge-dual is a current $j^{\mu}:=\frac{1}{2}\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}F_{\nu\rho}$ and is conserved in virtue of the Bianchi Identity.
The questions are:
1) What is it meant when they say the current is conserved? Is it covariantly conserved (ie $D_{\mu}j^{\mu}$=0) or simply conserved (i.e $\partial_{\mu}j^{\mu}=0$)
2)Do I have just one vector current, or one for each generator of the gauge group? (i.e 4 in this case)
3) Can you explicitly carry out the computation of the conserved current and charge?
4) I am asked to state if the conserved charge arises because of the factor $U(1)$ of the gauge group (which has an algebra generated by $t_0$), because of the factor $U(1)$ which is the cartan subalgebra of $SU(2)$ (generated by $t_3$), or because both of them. [I really don't understand this question, what would you answer? Thanks.]
The part of the computation I did is the following.
$$F^0_{\mu\nu}=\partial_{\mu}A^0_{\nu}-\partial_{\nu}A^0_{\mu}$$ $$F^i_{\mu\nu}=\partial_{\mu}A^i_{\nu}-\partial_{\nu}A^i_{\mu}+g\epsilon^{ijk}A_{\mu}^jA^k_{\nu}$$
Therefore using Bianchi I have
$$0=D_\mu\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}F^0_{\nu\rho}=(\partial_{\mu}-igA_{\mu})\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(\partial_{\nu}A^0_{\rho}-\partial_{\rho}A^0_{\nu})$$
while for the other side
$$0=D_\mu\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}F^i_{\nu\rho}=(\partial_{\mu}-igA_{\mu})\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(\partial_{\nu}A^i_{\rho}-\partial_{\rho}A^i_{\nu}+g\epsilon^{ijk}A_{\mu}^jA^k_{\nu})$$
What can I do from here? It seems to me that the currents $$j^{\mu}_0=\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(\partial_{\nu}A^0_{\rho}-\partial_{\rho}A^0_{\nu})$$ and $$j^{\mu}_i=\epsilon^{\mu\nu\rho}(\partial_{\nu}A^i_{\rho}-\partial_{\rho}A^i_{\nu}+g\epsilon^{ijk}A_{\nu}^jA^k_{\rho})$$
are both covariantly conserved...
Thanks a lot for answers and clarifications.