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I am trying to understand discrete symmetries in the SM, and I have some troubles in understanding why the CC interaction violates CP. In my (badly written) notes it's said that, taken two fermonic fields $\psi_{i},\psi_{j}$ (with $i,j$ standing for different flavors indices), then

$$\bar{\psi}_{i}A_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{j}\stackrel{CP}{\rightarrow} \bar{\psi}_{j}A_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{i}.$$

In this way the CC interaction transform as

$$\mathcal{L}_{CC}=-\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\bigl[\bar{u}_{L}V_{CKM}W_{\mu}^{+}\gamma^{\mu}d_{L}+\bar{d}_{L}V^{*}_{CKM}W^{-}_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu}u_{L}\bigr]$$

$$\stackrel{CP}{=}\mathcal{L}_{CC}=-\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\bigl[\bar{d}_{L}V_{CKM}^{T}W_{\mu}^{-}\gamma^{\mu}u_{L}+\bar{u}_{L}(V^{*}_{CKM})^{\dagger}W^{-}_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu}d_{L}\bigr]$$ so that CP is violated since $V_{CKM}\neq V_{CKM}^{*}$

I am not convinced about the first relation, since as far as I know the vector field should change sign under C while $\bar{\psi}_{i}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{j}$ should transform as $+\bar{\psi}_{j}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{i}$ (for a reference take a look in RQM by Greiner), so using the fact that

$$\bar{\psi}_{i}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{j}\stackrel{P}{\rightarrow}(-1)^{\mu}\bar{\psi}_{i}\gamma^{\mu}\psi_{j}$$ $$W_{\mu}^{\pm}\stackrel{P}{\rightarrow}(-1)^{\mu}W_{\mu}^{\pm}$$

we should have a change of sign. What am I doing wrong?? I also don't know if the coupling constant flips its sign under C or it stays unchanged. Notice that $(-1)^{\mu}$ is intended to be $-1$ for spatial components and $+1$ for the temporal ones.

Is it possible that my notes are confusing the way classical fields transforms with how quantum fields transforms?

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    $\begingroup$ Refer to the helpful extended tables of the text by M Schwartz. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 21:32
  • $\begingroup$ Schwartz has written that $\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi\stackrel{C}{\rightarrow}-\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\psi$, saying that spinors must anti commute for some reasons that are really not clear to me. If we talk about quantum fields we must have that minus sign since we have the currents defined as antysimmetrized product of the fields (see again Greiner), but not because spinors anti-commute. I'm more confused than before $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 21:37
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    $\begingroup$ Forget Greiner's book. Already the title "Relativistic Quantum Mechanics" instead of "Relativistic Quantum Field Theory" should be a warning. I don't have this book at hand, but so far as I remember, it avoids second quantization for hundreds of pages leading to absolutely unnecessary confusion (your problem is one example). $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 21:52

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You have to take into account that fermionic fields are anticommuting objects.

The general form of a CP-transformation acting on the quark fields (mass eigenfield) reads $$u(x) \stackrel{\rm CP}{\to} e^{i \alpha_u} C u^\ast(\tilde{x}), \quad d(x) \stackrel{\rm CP}{\to} e^{i\alpha_d} C d^\ast(\tilde{x}), \qquad x=(x^0, \mathbf{x}), \, \tilde{x}=(x^0, -\mathbf{x}), \, C=-i \gamma^2\gamma^0,$$ where all quarks with (electromagnetic) charge $+2/3$ are collected in the $n_G=3$ dimensional column vector $u$ and, analogously, the quarks with charge $-1/3$ in $d$. $e^{i\alpha_u}$ and $e^{i\alpha_d}$ are diagonal $n_G \times n_G = 3 \times 3$ phase matrices, which do not affect the kinetic or mass terms of the quark fields. As a consequence, one obtains $$\bar{u} (x) \gamma^\mu (1-\gamma_5) V_{\rm CKM}\, d(x) \stackrel{\rm CP}{\to} -\varepsilon(\mu)\bar{d}(\tilde{x})\gamma^\mu (1-\gamma_5)(e^{-i\alpha_u}V_{\rm CKM}e^{i\alpha_d})^Tu(\tilde{x}),$$ where $\varepsilon(0)=+1$ and $\varepsilon(i)= -1$ ($i=1,2,3$). The minus sign in this formula originates from the crucial property $u_{i a} d^\ast_{j b}= - d^\ast_{j b} u_{i a}$ of fermionic fields ($i,j$ are generation indices and $a,b$ are Dirac indices).

P.S.: The weak coupling constant $g$, being simply one of the input parameters of the SM, is, of course, not affected by this transformation (acting on the fields).

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer, this crucial propriety of anti-commutation where it comes from? Notice that I have no idea of how QCD is built up...(yeah I know that quarks are fermions and they are charged under SU(3) nothing more) Also if I understand correctly this means that g goes into -g??? $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 21:55
  • $\begingroup$ @Filippo 1. The anticommutativity properties of fermionic fields are related to the Pauli exclusion principle. You find this in all good books on (relativistic) quantum field theory. 2. Your question has nothing to do with QCD. It conserns the weak interaction (charged currents) . 3. What do you mean by $g$? The weak coupling constant? It does not change. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 22:01
  • $\begingroup$ Ah ok I've seen something in the Schwartz book, so spinors' component must be Grassmann numbers... interesting, so it must be also in the usual Dirac expansion with $u,v$ spinors right? Thank you btw $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 22:22
  • $\begingroup$ @Filippo NO! The $u$ and $v$ are c-number objects. The Fourier coefficients $b$ and $d$ are interpreted as Grassman objects and consequently the fields. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 22:28
  • $\begingroup$ Yes I know of course I din't mean that $u$ and $v$ anti-commute (they can't even be multiplied), thank you. I still haven't found an explanation for that complex conjugate but that's enough thank you for your help $\endgroup$
    – Filippo
    Commented Dec 26, 2023 at 22:33

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