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Is the statistical nature of quantum mechanics due to position and momentum not defined for quantum particles?

Update: I mean the uncertainty of any conjugate pairs.

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    $\begingroup$ The answer to this question depends upon your choice of interpretation. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 2:37
  • $\begingroup$ well the postulates of quantum mechanics also makes it statistical. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 3:00

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As pointed out in another answer, the measurement problem and Heisenberg uncertainty are not causally related.

Heisenberg uncertainty arises from the wave characteristics of propagation of quantum entities. This wave behavior is highly analogous to classical wave propagation (but not identical). For instance, most of the (interference) properties of light can be accounted for in terms of propagation of classical waves. (Well, in order to interpret propagation of light as classical wave propagation the existence of a medium that enables that propagation must be granted).

The key point:
Wave propagation, and interference effect of wave propagation, does not in itself lead to a statistical nature. Example: propagating sound waves do not have a statistical nature.

For context of how Heisenberg uncertainty arises from wave characteristics, see the video by Grant Sanderson titled The more general uncertainty principle, regarding Fourier transforms


The statistical nature, on the other hand, correlates with the fact that when a quantum entity is detected it is deteced as a whole unit, characteristic of detection of a single entire particle. This is referred to as the measurement problem.

Among the most vivid demonstrations of that: the electron double slit setup, 1989, Hitachi labs.

Uploaded by many to youtube, I have arbitrarily selected one of them: Single electron double slit wave experiment

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the reply. I have 2 questions. 1) The wave nature or the uncertainty principle says the same thing, isn't it? I mean if you have a sine wave or zero uncertainty in the momentum, the position of the electron is present throughout the sine wave, which means uniform distribution, isn't it? (2) When you detect an electron, do we say the wavefunction has collapsed to that point? Is this the wavefunction collapse that's frequently talked about? $\endgroup$
    – iVenky
    Commented Jan 2 at 11:07
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    $\begingroup$ @iVenky for how the wave nature gives rise to Heisenberg uncertainy I once again refer to the video by Grant Sanderson. As to the event of detection: the name 'collapse of the wavefunction' is already an overinterpretation. For comparison: the famous Sidney Harris cartoon then a miracle occurs It's funny because it's true. At present there is no theory that explains why detection occurs for entire units only; at present it must be accepted as is. $\endgroup$
    – Cleonis
    Commented Jan 2 at 12:06
  • $\begingroup$ I think you misunderstood the first question I asked before. If the electron is a sine wave with a specific wavelength, it has zero uncertainty in the momentum as the wavelength is fixed at one value, and the position of the electron is present throughout the sine wave. Does this mean a uniform distribution in the probability of finding the electron? Then both the statistical nature and the wave theory/uncertainty principle are linked in this way, isn't it? $\endgroup$
    – iVenky
    Commented Jan 2 at 17:29
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No, the uncertainty principle is unrelated to the Born rule, which is what I guess you mean by the statistical nature of QM.

The uncertainty principle is simpler than you think. A wavefunction $\psi$ has a well defined momentum only if it is an eigenfunction of the momentum operator i.e.

$$ i\hbar\frac{d}{dx} \psi = p \psi $$

where $p$ is the momentum. Likewise it has a well defined position only if it is an eigenfunction of the position operator. The uncertainty principle simply says that there are no wave functions that are eigenfunctions of both the momentum and position operators¹, so no wavefunction can have a well defined momentum and a well defined position at the same time. This is just a mathematical property of wave functions and unrelated to the measurement problem.


¹ the HUP says more than this of course, but this is the important point here

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Some of the most fundamental principles of quantum mechanics are

  • Particles can be in a superposition of many different positions/momentum states
  • Observables like position and momentum behave in a statistical way when measured

Based on the more mathematically precise version of these statements, along with the relationship between position and momentum as described by their commutation relations, we can derive the uncertainty principle. So to answer the question in the title of your question, I would say that the statistical nature of quantum mechanics is not due to the uncertainty principle. It's the other way around. The uncertainty principle is due to the statistical nature of quantum mechanics. Of course, it's a little bit arbitrary to start with one set of "fundamentals" and then to say everything else is derived, but you'd need to start with more than just the uncertainty principle to derive all the statistical properties of quantum mechanics.

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  • $\begingroup$ But the statistical part is related to the uncertainty principle in some way, right? It's like saying Newton's 3 laws are sort of related in some way. $\endgroup$
    – iVenky
    Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 4:09
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    $\begingroup$ As I said in my answer, the uncertainty principle is a consequence of the statistical properties of quantum mechanics, so they are related. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 12:39
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Of course not. Sequential Stern-Gerlach experiments, which are about spin and measurements, have nothing to do with position and momentum, yet the results are probabilistic, as is the passing of a polarized photon through a misaligned polarization filter.

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  • $\begingroup$ Well, I don't mean just position and momentum. Uncertainty principle includes any conjugate pairs. $\endgroup$
    – iVenky
    Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 4:07
  • $\begingroup$ The spin observables are subject to uncertainty relations even if they are not conjugate. But again: the measurement of spin is probabilistic so here’s an example where the uncertainty relation - for conjugate or non-conjugate observables - has nothing to do probabilities. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 25, 2023 at 15:10

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