I am currently working on generalized symmetries and i was reading https://arxiv.org/abs/2301.05261. In footnote 23 the authors state:
To be precise, by spontaneous symmetry breaking, we mean a phase where an order parameter constructed from operators charged under a symmetry acquires a nonzero vacuum expectation value in the thermodynamic limit.
So in general they mean something that looks like this
$\langle O \rangle \neq 0 $,
where $O$ is charged under the symmetry. So far i have no problem, but then the authors state the above definition is also valid in the case in which the operator $O$ has 0 charge under the symmetry, which from my point of view is equal to an operator that does not transform. This confuses me a lot so my question is:
Is it proper to say that we have a spontaneously broken symmetry even if the order parameter $\langle O \rangle \neq 0 $ is constructed using an operator that has 0 charge?