I am aware that when some operator $\phi_n(x)$ which transforms nontrivially with respect to some symmetry group acquires a VEV, it signals the spontaneous breakdown of a particular symmetry, since there must be different vacua to accomodate for the different values of $\langle\phi_n(x)\rangle$ under the symmetry transformation.
My question is, why doesn't the same logic apply to two-point functions like $\langle T\phi_n(x)\phi_m(y)\rangle$? These are expected to be nonzero, and they transform nontrivially. Somehow we don't make the conclusion that a nonzero two-point function implies spontaneous symmetry breaking.
What I am thinking:
I can make an analogy to a different situation that might help the discussion. If we consider Yang-Mills theory, there are 1-form global symmetries, which act on Wilson and 't Hooft line operators. This 1-form symmetry can be spontaneously broken, and the criterion is as follows. If a Wilson loop $\langle W(L)\rangle$ follows an area law for large loops the symmetry is unbroken, while if it follows a circumference law the symmetry is broken. The logic for this is that a circumference law can be canceled by some local counterterm, and so the Wilson loop won't go to zero for large loops.
The situation may be similar for the two-point case, where it can either have an exponential decay (which signals a mass gap) or some slower decay.
However, if this is the case it seems weird to me that we don't care what happens when $x\to y$ (which probes the UV), we only care about about the IR behavior of the two point function.
Response to the singlet answers
The field strength two point correlation function is
$$\langle T F_{\mu\nu}(x)F_{\lambda\sigma}(0)\rangle=\frac{4}{(x^2)^2}\Big(\eta_{\mu\lambda}\eta_{\nu\sigma}-2\eta_{\nu\sigma}\frac{x_{\mu}x_{\lambda}}{x^2}-2\eta_{\mu\lambda}\frac{x_{\nu}x_{\sigma}}{x^2}-(\mu\leftrightarrow\nu)\Big)$$
Looking at the tensor structure of this, the first term with just $\eta$'s is certainly a singlet of the Lorentz group, but I don't see how the other parts are singlets. This suggests that Lorentz symmetry is spontaneously broken based on what you are saying.
Response to MannyC's answer
While I agree that what you did shows no contradiction with the fact that $Q|\Omega\rangle=0$ and the correlator is non-zero, there does appear to be a contradiction by considering the quantity
$$0\neq\langle\Omega|[Q,\phi(x_1)O_1(x_2)\cdots O_{n-1}(x_n)]|\Omega\rangle=0$$
This is nonzero by the assumption that the operator transforms non-trivially, but it is zero by the assumption that $Q|\Omega\rangle=0$. So actually, if $Q|\Omega\rangle=0$ then the correlator must be in the singlet representation. This observation doesn't bode well for the two point correlator of field strengths however.