Will the fermion propagator change if instead of deriving it from the Lagrangian $$\mathcal{L}=i\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}\Psi -m\bar{\Psi}\Psi\tag{1}$$ I derive it from $$\mathcal{L}'=\frac{i}{2}(\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}\Psi- \partial_{\mu}\bar{\Psi}\gamma^{\mu}\Psi) -m\bar{\Psi}\Psi\tag{2}$$ and if yes, what will the new propagator be?
The fermion propagator derived from the first Lagrangian, $\mathcal{L}$, is $$(-i)\frac{(-\gamma^{\mu}p_{\mu}+m)}{p^2+m^2-i\epsilon}.\tag{3}$$
EDIT: I will lay out the blueprint for deriving the expression for the Feynman propagator
Define the Feynman propagator as $$S_F(x-y)_{\alpha\beta}= \langle0|T\bar{\Psi}(x)\Psi(y)|0\rangle_{\alpha\beta}\tag{4}$$
and then substitute the mode expansions for $\Psi(y)$ and $\bar{\Psi}(x)$.
The result will yield the expression for the Feynman propagator in position space.
Invert that and get the Feynman propagator in momentum space
So my question reduces to "whether or not the propagator is determined by the Lagrangian." And I guess the answer is yes through the mode expansion, which needs to satisfy the classical equations of motion, right?
Since the equations of motion are the same for $\mathcal{L}$ and $\mathcal{L}'$, I would suggest that the propagator is the same. But at the very beginning I hadn't write that to get a feeling on what other people think... So now, I would just appreciate for some comments/confirmation if any...