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I am asking this question on behalf of user furious.neutrino. I asked this question at Electrical Engineering Stack Exchange, but it has not received a reply, so I am duplicating it here. I think the answer really requires someone who is familiar with both the physics diagrams below and in electrical schematics.

The question is how to translate the following diagrams from the language of physics into electrical schematics.

enter image description here

The diagrams come from this paper: Rajesh Gopakumar, From Free Fields to AdS, arXiv:hep-th/0308184.

The solid lines are easy to interpret in terms of electrical networks.

schematic

What I don't understand is how "the rest of the circuit" represented by the dotted lines are connected. In the left hand side, there are 4 terminals. In the right hand side, there are 6. Further, in the left hand physics diagram, are the dotted lines all connected? Or are they meant to cross without connection? That is, is the current in $k_1$ supposed to equal the current in $k_3$, and similarly for $k_2$ and $k_4$? Could someone complete "the rest of the circuit" for both diagrams?

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    $\begingroup$ I’m voting to close this question because it is not about physics. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 3, 2023 at 18:24
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    $\begingroup$ Actually, there is a long physics tradition on analogies between Feynman diagrams and electrical networks, see e.g. Bjorken & Drell, 1965, section 18.4. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Sep 4, 2023 at 5:45
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    $\begingroup$ I think that this question is about physics, but it needs additional clarity, because it's not clear what you mean by "translate the following diagrams from the language of physics into electrical schematics." If you're not sure what it means to translate them into electrical schematics, then it would probably be a good idea to ask that as a separate question: "What method is this author using to translate Feynman diagrams to electrical schematics?" $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2023 at 13:31
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    $\begingroup$ Analogies are useful tools of modeling. The fact that many physicists are not familiar with this particular analogy does not make it unphysical. Indeed, since it relates one sort of physical system to another, it is more physical than mere mathematical modeling. $\endgroup$
    – John Doty
    Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 14:35

1 Answer 1

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  1. The translation between Feynman diagrams and electrical networks in Ref. 1 is as follows: The Schwinger parameters $\alpha_i$ correspond to resistances $R_i$ while the momenta $k_i$ correspond to currents $I_{i-1,i}$, where $i\in\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$.

  2. On the electrical side the two equivalent circuits are depict in Figs. 1 & 2.

      x-----x-----[R2]-----x-----x 
      |     |              |     |
      |   [I12]          [I23]   |
      |     |              |     |
     [R1]   x--------------x    [R3]
      |     |              |     |
      |   [I41]          [I34]   |
      |     |              |     |
      x-----x-----[R4]-----x-----x 
    

    $\uparrow$ Fig.1. Original electrical circuit.

      x-----[R12]-----x-----[R23]-----x  
      |               |               |
    [I12]             |             [I23]
      |               |               |
      x-----[R13]-----|---------------x    
      |               |               |
    [I41]           [R24]           [I34]
      |               |               |
      x-----[R41]-----x-----[R34]-----x  
    

    $\uparrow$ Fig.2. Transformed electrical circuit. $R_{ij}=R_{ji}=\frac{R_iR_j}{\sum_{k=1}^4R_k}$, $i\!\neq\!j$.

  3. Figs. 1 & 2 are equivalent in the sense that the voltages $V_{i,i+1}$ across the current sources $I_{i,i+1}$ are the same for the two circuits whenever there is current conservation $$ \sum_{i=1}^4I_{i,i+1}~=~0$$ (with pertinent sign conventions).

  4. Note that this weaker notion of equivalence does not necessarily preserve potential differences between other nodes, which goes to the core of OP's question.

    Moreover, this notion of equivalence is invariant under reordering of components in series. E.g. if we exchange the positions of the resistor $R_{12}$ and the current source $I_{12}$ in Fig. 2. Similarly with $R_{23}$ and $I_{23}$, and so forth.

  5. Fig. 2 can be obtained from Fig. 1 by composition of 3 transformations, cf. Fig. 14:

    • Dual graph transform: Resistances become conductances, which are interpreted as a dual resistances $\breve{R}_i=1/R_i$. Current sources become voltage sources, etc.
    • Star-mesh transform$^1$: $\breve{R}_{ij}=\breve{R}_i\breve{R}_j\sum_{k=1}^4\breve{R}_k^{-1}$.
    • Dual graph transform: $R_{ij}=1/\breve{R}_{ij}$. Voltage sources become current sources, etc.

    enter image description here

    $\uparrow$ Fig.14 in Ref. 2. The original (transformed) electrical circuit is on the bottom left (right), respectively. Solid lines are resistors, while dashed lines are current sources.

References:

  1. R. Gopakumar, From Free Fields to AdS, arXiv:hep-th/0308184; p. 19 Fig. 4.

  2. E.A. Guillemin, Introductory circuit theory, 5th edition, 1958; p. 136 Fig. 14. An online version is available here.


$^1$ For $n$ terminals the star-mesh transform reads $$ R_{ij}~=~R_iR_j\sum_{k=1}^nR_k^{-1}\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad G_{ij}~=~\frac{G_iG_j}{\sum_{k=1}^nG_k},$$ where $G_{\cdot}=1/R_{\cdot}$ denotes conductance.

Sketched proof: Split nodes $\{1,\ldots,n\}=I\sqcup J$ in 2 non-empty subsets $I$ and $J$. Short-cut all nodes within a subset. Define $$ S_{IJ}~:=~\sum_{i\in I,j\in J}G_{ij}~=~\left(\frac{1}{\sum_{i\in I}G_i}+\frac{1}{\sum_{j\in J}G_j}\right)^{-1}~=~\frac{\sum_{i\in I}G_i\sum_{j\in J}G_j}{\sum_{k=1}^nG_k}$$ $$\quad\Downarrow\quad$$ $$ G_{ij}~=~\frac{S_{\{i\},\cdot}+S_{\{j\},\cdot}-S_{\{i,j\},\cdot}}{2}~=~\frac{G_iG_j}{\sum_{k=1}^nG_k}.$$ $\Box$

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  • $\begingroup$ Notes for later: Euler characteristic: $F-E+V=2$ sphere. 3-valent closed graph: $2V=3E$. 3-valent triangularized sphere: $E=3(V-2)$ and $F=2(V-2)$. (Proof hint: Use induction in $V$.) $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jan 12 at 14:20
  • $\begingroup$ Green function for fluctuation part: $\quad 2G(\theta)-\frac{\pi}{3}$ $=\frac{\theta^2}{2\pi}-|\theta|$ $=\frac{|\theta|(2\pi-|\theta|)}{2\pi}$ $=\frac{1}{\pi}\sum_{n\neq 0}\frac{1}{n^2}e^{in\theta}$ for $|\theta|\leq 2\pi$. Diff. eq. $\quad -\partial^2_{\theta}G(\theta)=\delta(\theta\!+\!2\pi\mathbb{Z})-\frac{1}{2\pi}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n\neq 0}e^{in\theta}$ with BC: $\quad G(\theta\!+\!2\pi)=G(\theta)$ and $\quad \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\!d\theta~G(\theta)=0$. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jan 19 at 9:00
  • $\begingroup$ Action: $\quad S_J[q]=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\!d\theta~(\frac{1}{2}\dot{q}^2+Jq)$ $=2\pi\sum_{n\neq 0}(\frac{1}{2}n^2q_nq_{-n}+J_nq_{-n})$. Completing the square $\longrightarrow -\pi\sum_{n\neq 0}\frac{1}{n^2}J_nJ_{-n}$ $=-\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\!d\theta\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\!d\theta^{\prime}~J(\theta)G(\theta\!-\!\theta^{\prime})J(\theta^{\prime})$. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jan 19 at 12:24
  • $\begingroup$ See arXiv:hep-th/0308184, eq. (2.5); arXiv:hep-th/9610108, eq. (8); arXiv:1512.08694, eq. (2.36); Polyakov, Gauge Fields & Strings, eq. (9.67). Note that $\langle\ldots\rangle$ in eq. (2.3) is unnormalized. Eq. (2.4): ${\rm Det}(-\partial_t^2) \sim T$ is the standard functional determinant. Delta function comes from zeromode. Vertex operators are normal ordered. There is an overall time-order. Hm physics.stackexchange.com/a/130645 Note disclaimer at the end of chap. 1. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jan 20 at 8:10
  • $\begingroup$ We consider fixed time-ordering of $n$ legs, so that we can neglect absolute value in Green function. $\quad 0\leq T\alpha_{ij}=t_{ij}=t_i-t_j \mod T$. $\quad t_{i+1,i}=t_{i+1}-t_i$. $\quad t_{1n}=T+t_1-t_n$. Exponent: $\quad\frac{T}{4}\sum_{i>j}2 k_i\cdot k_j\alpha_{ij}(1-\alpha_{ij})$. Eq. (A.2) for $n=2$ has exponent $-T k_1^2\alpha_{21}(1-\alpha_{21})$. Eq. (3.2) for $n=3$ has exponent $-T k_2^2\alpha_{32}\alpha_{21}+{\rm cycl.}$ Eq. (6.6): Only leading contribution of 13-propagator. Eq. (6.2): $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jan 20 at 9:53

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