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Ballentine (Quantum Mechanics: A Modern Development 2nd edition, page 290) writes the attached in his introduction of the variational method. My question is about his very last line: why does $H$ being Hermitian imply that stationarity will then require the functional $\Lambda$ to be real at the stationary $\phi,\psi$, and why does this in turn require $\phi = \psi$? Is Ballentine perhaps saying that, in general, we use the variational method (10.110) in such a way that we are searching for minimization of expectation values, and so we enforce $\phi = \psi$ on (10.110)? I am not sure because Ballentine is seeming to suggest that this is something we arrive at as a conclusion, rather than as an assumption.

Edit: To clarify, essentially my concern is this. Ballentine begins with (10.110) and says "often we will want to extremize functionals $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)$ like this". Ballentine then goes through the derivation and shows that an equivalent condition in the space of pairs of functions $(\phi,\psi)$ to the extremization of $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)$ is that the functions obey a pair of eigenvalue equations, with the eigenvalue being related to the value of the functional at those functions $\Lambda(\phi,\psi$). But then, and here is my question, Ballentine seems to say that if $H$ is Hermitian, then we can restrict this search in the space of all pairs of functions to simply the subspace of single functions $(\psi,\psi)$. I don't understand why this claim is true. How do we know we're not missing possible extremization points of the form $(\phi,\psi)$ with $\phi \neq \psi$?

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I find the wording a little sloppy, because as written it seems to suggest somehow $\phi=\psi$, or that there is no degeneracy in the eigenspaces. This is false in general. However, the point is that if for a Hermitian operator you know all the critical points of the one-variable functional $\Lambda_1$, then you know all the critical points of the two-variable functional $\Lambda$, because you simply take pairs $(\phi,\psi)$ where $\phi,\psi$ are critical for $\Lambda_1$ and lie on the same level set (i.e $\Lambda_1(\phi)=\Lambda_1(\psi)$). See below for the notation and proof.


1. Critical points of the two variable function.

Let $E=\{(\phi,\psi)\in\mathcal{H}\times\mathcal{H}\,:\, \langle\phi|\psi\rangle\neq 0\}$, and consider the functional $\Lambda:E\to\Bbb{C}$ defined as \begin{align} \Lambda(\phi,\psi)&:=\frac{\langle\phi|H\psi\rangle}{\langle \phi|\psi\rangle}. \end{align} Now, at each point $(\phi,\psi)\in E$, and each $(\alpha,\beta)\in\mathcal{H}\times\mathcal{H}$, we can compute the directional derivative of $\Lambda$ at the point $(\phi,\psi)$ along the direction $(\alpha,\beta)$. This gives after a simple calculation: \begin{align} (D_{(\alpha,\beta)}\Lambda)(\phi,\psi)&:= \frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0}\Lambda\left((\phi,\psi)+t(\alpha,\beta)\right)\\ &=\frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0}\Lambda\left(\phi+t\alpha,\psi+t\beta\right)\\ &=\frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0}\frac{\left\langle\phi+t\alpha|H\psi+ tH\beta\right\rangle}{\langle \phi+t\alpha|\psi+t\beta\rangle}\\ &=\frac{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle\left[\langle\alpha|H\psi\rangle+\langle\phi|H\beta\rangle\right]-\langle\phi|H\psi\rangle\left[\langle\alpha|\psi\rangle+\langle\phi|\beta\rangle\right]}{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle^2}\\ &=\frac{1}{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle^3}\left[\bigg\langle\alpha\bigg|H\psi-\frac{\langle\phi|H\psi\rangle}{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle}\psi\bigg\rangle +\bigg\langle H^{\dagger}\phi+\overline{\frac{\langle\phi|H\psi\rangle}{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle}}\phi\bigg|\beta\bigg\rangle \right]\\ &=\frac{1}{\langle\phi|\psi\rangle^3}\left[ \bigg\langle\alpha\bigg| H\psi-\Lambda(\phi,\psi)\psi\bigg\rangle+ \bigg\langle H^{\dagger}\phi-\overline{\Lambda(\phi,\psi)}\phi\bigg|\beta\bigg\rangle \right]. \end{align} I’ve simply used the quotient rule, and that the inner product is bilinear (and continuous) so the ‘product rule’ applies to it, and finally I cleaned up the algebra and used the definition of $\Lambda$. This expression vanishes if and only if the stuff in square brackets vanishes. So, the directional derivative vanishes for all $(\alpha,\beta)$ if and only if we have the two equations \begin{align} H\psi-\Lambda(\phi,\psi)\psi&=0,\quad\text{and}\quad H^{\dagger}\phi-\overline{\Lambda(\phi,\psi)}\phi=0.\tag{$*$} \end{align} But now notice that we can express the eigenvalues slightly differently as well. For the first equation, “apply the bra $\langle\psi|$”, to get \begin{align} 0&=\langle\psi|H\psi-\Lambda(\phi,\psi)\psi\rangle=\langle\psi|H\psi\rangle-\Lambda(\phi,\psi)\langle\psi|\psi\rangle. \end{align} Rearranging gives $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)=\Lambda(\psi,\psi)$. Likewise, from the second equation in $(*)$, we deduce that $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)=\Lambda(\phi,\phi)$.

Thus, a point $(\phi,\psi)$ is a critical point for the functional $\Lambda$ if and only if $(*)$ holds. In this case, we necessarily have $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)=\Lambda(\psi,\psi)=\Lambda(\phi,\phi)$.


2. Critical points of the one-variable function for Hermitian $H$.

Define $\Lambda_1:\mathcal{H}\setminus\{0\}\to\Bbb{R}$ as $\Lambda(\psi,\psi)$. Note that because $H$ is Hermitian, $\Lambda_1$ is real-valued: \begin{align} \Lambda_1(\psi)&=\Lambda(\psi,\psi)=\frac{\langle\psi|H\psi\rangle}{\|\psi\|^2}=\frac{\langle H^{\dagger}\psi|\psi\rangle}{\|\psi\|^2}=\frac{\langle H\psi|\psi\rangle}{\|\psi\|^2}=\overline{\frac{\langle\psi|H\psi\rangle}{\|\psi\|^2}}=\overline{\Lambda_1(\psi)}. \end{align} Now, what are the critical points of $\Lambda_1$? Well, a point $\psi\in\mathcal{H}\setminus\{0\}$ is critical if and only if for all $\alpha\in\mathcal{H}$, we have $D_{\alpha}(\Lambda_1)(\psi)=0$. By the chain rule, this directional derivative is simply $(D_{(\alpha,\alpha)}\Lambda)(\psi,\psi)$. So, using our formula from above, we have \begin{align} D_{\alpha}(\Lambda_1)(\psi)&= (D_{(\alpha,\alpha)}\Lambda)(\psi,\psi)\\ &= \frac{1}{\langle\psi|\psi\rangle^3}\left[ \bigg\langle\alpha\bigg| H\psi-\Lambda_1(\psi)\psi\bigg\rangle+ \bigg\langle H\psi-\Lambda_1\psi\bigg|\alpha\bigg\rangle \right]\\ &=\frac{1}{\langle\psi|\psi\rangle^3}\cdot 2\text{Re} \bigg\langle\alpha\bigg| H\psi-\Lambda_1(\psi)\psi\bigg\rangle. \end{align} Note, I’ve used that $\Lambda_1$ is real-valued. Thus, this directional derivative vanishes for all $\alpha$ if and only if \begin{align} H\psi-\Lambda_1(\psi)\psi&=0.\tag{$**$} \end{align} Hence, $\psi$ is a critical point for $\Lambda_1$ if and only if $\psi$ is an eigenvector of $H$, in which case it has eigenvalue $\Lambda_1(\psi)$.


Putting it all together for Hermitian $H$.

From step 1, and the fact that for Hermitian $H$, the function $\Lambda$ with equal inputs (i.e $\Lambda_1$) is real valued, we see that a pair $(\phi,\psi)$ is a critical point for $\Lambda$ if and only if $\phi,\psi$ are eigenvectors of $H$ with the same (real) eigenvalue of $\Lambda(\psi,\psi)=\Lambda(\phi,\phi)=\Lambda(\phi,\psi)$. Of course you can write this eigenvalue as $\Lambda_1(\psi)=\Lambda_1(\phi)$.

From step 2 however, we observe that $\psi$ is a critical point for $\Lambda_1$ if and only if it is an eigenvector of $H$, in which case the eigenvalue equals $\Lambda_1(\psi)$.

In short, the critical points of $\Lambda_1$ are exactly the the eigenvectors. Conversely, for any two critical points $\phi,\psi$ of $\Lambda_1$ which lie on the same level set (i.e equal eigenvalues $\Lambda_1(\phi)=\Lambda_1(\psi)$), it follows that the pair $(\phi,\psi)$ is critical for $\Lambda$. Therefore, restricting yourself to the study of $\Lambda_1$ is no loss of generality, and you’re not ‘missing out’ on anything.


Extra good to know facts.

Theorem.

Let $H$ be a Hermitian operator on a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. Then,

  • all its eigenvalues are real
  • distinct eigenspaces are orthogonal.

To prove the first part, let $\lambda$ be an eigenvalue. This means there is a non-zero vector $\psi$ such that $H\psi=\lambda\psi$. Hence, \begin{align} \lambda\langle\psi|\psi\rangle=\langle\psi|\lambda\psi\rangle= \langle\psi|H\psi\rangle\underbrace{=}_{H=H^{\dagger}}\langle H\psi|\psi\rangle=\langle\lambda\psi|\psi\rangle=\overline{\lambda}\langle\psi|\psi \rangle. \end{align} Since $\psi$ is non-zero, $\langle\psi|\psi\rangle=\|\psi\|^2>0$, so we can divide it on both sides to conclude $\lambda=\overline{\lambda}$, and hence shows all eigenvalues are real.

For the second part, suppose $\lambda,\mu$ are distinct eigenvalues of $H$, and let $\psi,\phi$ be any eigenvectors with these respective eigenvalues. Then,

\begin{align} \lambda\langle\phi|\psi\rangle=\langle\phi|\lambda\psi\rangle=\langle\phi|H\psi\rangle=\langle H\phi|\psi\rangle=\langle \mu\phi|\psi\rangle=\mu\langle\phi|\psi\rangle. \end{align} I used that $H=H^{\dagger}$ in the third equality and that $\mu$ is real in the last equality. Since $\lambda\neq \mu$, it follows that $\langle\phi|\psi\rangle=0$, thus showing the different eigenspaces are orthogonal.

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    $\begingroup$ I know comments shouldn't be used for these purposes, but I want to tell you that I really like your posts because of the clear notation! Thank you very much-it is always a pleasure to read and learn from you. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 22:25
  • $\begingroup$ This is exquisite, thank you so much. I completely agree with @TobiasFünke -- I am always assured of a very clear and precise answer when you respond, so thank you for this and for your various other answers to my questions! $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 18, 2023 at 1:04
  • $\begingroup$ If I may just confirm your conclusion (mostly for myself) in the Putting it all together for Hermitian $H$. step. In the first paragraph of that section, you show that any element of the $\Lambda$ critical points set, call it $C_\Lambda$, then the entries in that pair are in the set of eigenvectors of $H$ and so are critical points of $\Lambda_1$, i.e. in $C_{\Lambda_1}$. Importantly, they also have the same eigenvalues. Conversely, and in your second paragraph of the section, if you have the entire set $C_{\Lambda_1}$, then you can construct... $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 18, 2023 at 1:08
  • $\begingroup$ ...a critical point from any pair of eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue. Thus, in studying $\Lambda_1$, and in observing its critical points (the eigenvectors of $H$) while paying attention to the level sets of eigenvectors of $H$, we obtain no more and no less than the critical points of $\Lambda$ if we follow your procedure in the final paragraph of the section. $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 18, 2023 at 1:09
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for the nice comment, and yes, that’s exactly it. (a very pedantic correction: “level sets of eigenvectors of $H$” should really be ‘level sets of $\Lambda_1$’:) Also thanks for the edit suggestion. Initially, I intended for the “Extra good to know facts” to be section 1, hence the numbering issue. $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Commented Aug 18, 2023 at 2:16
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The key is this line

Thus the conditions for the functional to be stationary are that $\phi$ and $\psi$ be, respectively, left and right eigenvectors of H, with the eigenvalue $\lambda$ [...]

The eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are always real, thus if $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of a Hermitian operator, it must be real. We can immediately see that that's the case when considering $H$ in its eigenbasis. It only has entries along its main diagonal, which at the same time are its eigenvalues. The only way for this operator to be Hermitian, $H^\dagger = H$, is for all eigenvalues to be real. Since a basis transformation does not change the eigenvalues, they stay real in any basis.

Hermitian operators also all have identical left and right eigenvectors, which we can easily show using that the eigenvalues are real (using the notation from the text you posted) $$ H \lvert \psi \rangle = \lambda \lvert \psi \rangle \\ H^\dagger \lvert \phi \rangle = H \lvert \phi \rangle = \lambda^* \lvert \phi \rangle = \lambda \lvert \phi \rangle $$

Picking out the right terms you can see that the equations for $\lvert \psi \rangle$ and $\lvert \phi \rangle$ are the same, therefore $\lvert \psi \rangle = \lvert \phi \rangle$ (ignoring possible degeneracy).

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  • $\begingroup$ I see -- so you are saying Ballentine's statement holds true if and only if we assume no degeneracy? This seems like a major statement to be missed, and he is usually very exacting. $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 16:32
  • $\begingroup$ Well, in any degenerate subspace I can find an infinite number of sets of eigenvectors (all linear combinations thereof), call one of them "left eigenvectors" and another "right eigenvectors", which is technically correct but usually not useful. $\endgroup$
    – noah
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 17:50
  • $\begingroup$ I’m still not sure I follow. In a comment to another answer above I rephrased what I think Ballentine is saying here. Do you agree? I think it’s about extremizing (10.110) and that in this special case, we can reduce the space we search in for the functional. Perhaps I am not understanding, but I don’t see how we are led to that conclusion by the answer here $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 17:57
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    $\begingroup$ Ah that should obviously read "Or $\lvert\psi\rangle = a \lvert\phi\rangle + b \lvert\chi\rangle$ where..." $\endgroup$
    – noah
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 18:37
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    $\begingroup$ I just want to say thank you for your answer. I've decided to go with another answer, but want to mention that yours was very helpful in getting me to understand the development here. $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 18, 2023 at 1:10
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Oh, first you read Callen, then you read Ballentine! It is as if you are reading my recommendation list before I have even given it to you!

But this is a badly written part that used too much of a mental stretch, so I want to start by convincing myself that Equation (10.111) leads to Equation (10.112a) in the first place. $$ \tag{10.110 augmented}\Lambda(\phi,\psi)=\frac{\left<\phi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}\left|\psi\right>}{\left<\phi\right.\!\left|\psi\right>}=\lambda\in\mathbb C\cup\infty $$ If you look at the form of Equation (10.111), we hope that the denominator is not zero, but then the link to Equation (10.112a) is then clear.


Now consider $$\tag{10.110 conjugated} \Lambda^*(\phi,\psi)=\frac{\left<\phi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}\left|\psi\right>^*}{\left<\phi\right.\!\left|\psi\right>^*}=\lambda^*=\frac{\left<\psi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}^\dagger\!\left|\phi\right>}{\left<\psi\right.\!\left|\phi\right>} $$ and if you now vary $\left|\phi\right>$, you will get $$ \begin{align} \tag{10.112a conjugated}\left<\psi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}^\dagger&=\lambda^*\left<\psi\right|\\ \tag{10.112a w/ Hermitian}\left<\psi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}&=\lambda^*\left<\psi\right|\\ \tag{10.112a original}\hat{\mathcal H}\left|\psi\right>&=\lambda\left|\psi\right>\\ \tag{result}\therefore\qquad\frac{\left<\psi\right|\hat{\mathcal H}\left|\psi\right>}{\left<\psi\right.\!\left|\psi\right>}&=\lambda=\lambda^* \end {align}$$ This is a different argument, and I have really not touched Equation (10.112b), but I think this is clearer.

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes it is a wonderful book! Callen, Ballentine, and Ashcroft and Mermin are what I am working through right now. At any rate, I am a bit confused about what you are proving here (i.e. your (result) line). I interpret Ballentine's line which begins "If $H = H^\dagger$..." as saying that if $H$ of (10.110) is Hermitian, then (as a theorem) the functional $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)$ (which is in general minimized with two different vectors $\phi,\psi$ is in fact minimized by just one vector, i.e. $\phi = \psi,\psi$, so we can just consider $\Lambda(\psi,\psi)$. Is this a correct reading? $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 16:38
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, you can read it that way. But you might want to understand the proof, which I was supplying. You just need to understand my last 3 lines. Act on the bra line with the ket, and act on the ket line with the bra, and you get my result that both equations have to satisfy. This is the thing that forces the eigenvalues to be real and the eigenfunctions to be the same on both sides. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 17:43
  • $\begingroup$ But in this case I'm afraid I don't see how what you've written proves the statement in my comment, and perhaps that's because I don't follow what you're trying to prove. If we agree that Ballentine's claim is basically "if $H$ Hermitian, then extremization of $\Lambda(\phi,\psi)$ is equivalent to exeremiztion of $\Lambda(\psi,\psi)$", then how have we concluded that here? $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 17:50
  • $\begingroup$ Well, in the one with two different vectors we dont actually know that the eigenvalues are real, i.e. we have to assume that they are complex, and that we do not know if the eigenvectors are orthogonal. Because of that, the set of (10.112a) and (10.112b) is actually much more difficult to work with. What I have supplied is a direct proof of the standard properties of Hermitian operators, i.e. their eigenvalues are real and the eigenvectors are the same on both sides. You will need a bit more work to show that when the eigenvalues are different, then orthogonality (and this extends in general). $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 17:59
  • $\begingroup$ I'm still afraid i don't understand. Please see my edit in the OP if you get the chance -- does that make my question make more sense? $\endgroup$
    – EE18
    Commented Aug 17, 2023 at 18:09

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