0
$\begingroup$

I am trying to figure out an expression for the position of a charged particle travelling downwards in the z-direction at some constant velocity through the static magnetic field generated by a bar magnet.

Following this post I have the expression for the magnetic field

$\mathbf{B}=\frac{\mathrm{B_r} V}{4 \pi \sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}^5} \left(3zx,3zy,2z^2-x^2-y^2\right)$

Where $B_r$ is the magnetic flux density and $V$ is the volume of the magnet. I then plug this into the relativistic Lorentz force equation $\frac{dp}{dt}$ = $\frac{e}{c}v\times B$, from which I should be able to get a function describing the position of the particle. However I am unsure how. If I take one of the components, e.g. the x component

m$\ddot{x}$ = $\frac{e}{c}$($-v_zB_y$)

and integrate by time twice to get a function of x, then I still have B as part of the function, which is a function of the space coordinates. I would like a function that has t as an argument alone. I assume I am missing something, but I am not sure what. Any help is appreciated.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Is this some kind of homework question? What makes you think it's analytically solvable? If this is a problem you've generated yourself, it might be wiser to just simulate it. $\endgroup$
    – AXensen
    Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 16:10
  • $\begingroup$ Not a homework question, just trying to figure it out for myself. I don't know how to assess whether it's analytically solvable, but presumably there are some cases of non-constant magnetic fields where particle motion is solvable, and I would like to know how if finding the position of particles in those cases is done along the same line I am trying. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 25, 2023 at 16:37

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

In general, the equation(s) of motion will be position dependent. There may or may not be an explicit time dependence. Take the 1D simple harmonic oscillator with force $F = -kx$. Newton's second law reads $$m\ddot x=-kx.$$ Time doesn't explicitly appear in this equation, yet it's a differential equation that's easily solved (partly because of the lack of time dependence).

The equation you have isn't easy (if not impossible) to solve analytically, except for certain initial conditions. You would normally either employ certain simplifications such as approximating the magnet's field as being uniform, or solve the problem numerically. See for example Runge-Kutta or Verlet methods.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.