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Assume a 2D square array of masses with mass $m$ connected by springs with constant $\kappa$. Then the equation of motion for small perturbations in the plane of the array to the mass at $(l,n)$ is

$$ \ddot{\vec{\psi}}_{l,n} = \Omega^2(\vec{\psi}_{l+1,n}-2\vec{\psi}_{l,n} + \vec{\psi}_{l-1,n})+\Omega^2(\vec{\psi}_{l,n+1}-2\vec{\psi}_{l,n} + \vec{\psi}_{l,n-1}) $$ where $\Omega^2=\kappa/m$.

How will a "spherical wave" will look like in this system? I.e. say I take the mass at $(0,0)$ and make it oscillate along the $y$ axis (i.e. along the $n$ direction). What will the disturbance look like as a function of $(l,n)$?

If I had to guess, it would be something like $e^{ik(|n|+|l|)}$, however I have failed to prove it. Also, how will it decay in space?

EDIT

Here is an attempt. In such a scenario, only the $y$ coordinate of each mass will oscillate, so we are reduced to a scalar wave. From symmetry we can focus on the region $l,n>0$. If $\psi(l,n,t)=A(l,n)e^{-i\omega t}$, then we must have $A(l+1,n)=A(l,n+1),\ \ A(l-1,n)=A(l,n-1)$. Also, $A(l,n)=A(l+n)$. Let $N=l+n$. Then plugging the solution in, we get $$ -\omega ^2A(N)=2\Omega^2\left(A(N+1)-2A(N)+A(N-1)\right) $$ which has a solution $A(N) = e^{ikN}$ when $\omega^2=4\Omega^2\sin^2\left(k/2\right)$.

However, this solution does not decay, which makes me skeptical.

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    $\begingroup$ A couple of thoughts: (a) Energy considerations suggest that the amplitude of the oscillations would decrease inversely proportionally to the square root of the number of oscillators excited as the waves travel outwards. (b) There may be some weirdness related from the fact that Huygens' principle does not quite work right in 2D; I'm not sure how this would manifest in a discretized system like this. Going to 3D might, paradoxically, be simpler. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 17:56
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelSeifert I've added an attempt for derivation. Maybe you have thought on this as well? $\endgroup$
    – JonTrav1
    Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 18:28

1 Answer 1

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To see how the square lattice determines how a wave looks at large distance, let me copy from my notes how response of the slightly simpler problem of how the solution of a massive scalar wave equation decays on a two-dimensional square lattice. I expect that the gapless wave equation works the same way except that the exponential decay will be replaced by a power-law decay.

Start with the Green function for the square lattice Laplacian $$ G({\bf n}, m^2)= \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \frac{d^2 k}{(2\pi)^2}\frac{e^{-i{\bf k}\cdot {\bf n} }}{m^2+ 2 \sum_1^d(1-\cos k_i)}. $$ Suppose $\bf n$ is becoming large in a particular direction specified by a unit vector $\bf e$: $$ {\bf n}=r{\bf e}, \qquad {\bf e}^2=1. $$ We expect $G$ to fall off exponentially at large $|r|$ $$ G(r{ \bf e}, m^2)\approx e^{-\kappa({\bf e)}|r|}. $$ The problem is to compute the direction depend decay rate $\kappa({\bf e})$, the inverse correlation length in the direction $\bf e$. We will see that $\kappa$ is anisotropic at large $m^2$ but becomes isotropic as $m^2$ becomes small.

Define $$ f(\xi)= \int_{-\infty}^\infty dr e^{-ir\xi}G(r{\bf e}, m^2). $$ This quantity should be analytic in a neighborhood of the real $\xi$ axis and the asymptotic behavior at large $r$ of $G(r{\bf e}, m^2)$ will be determined by the nearest singularity to the real $\xi$ axis. The nearest singularity will be on the imaginary axis if $G$ does not oscillate. For example, a singularity at $\xi=i\zeta_0$ would make $G\propto e^{-\zeta_0r}$. This is because $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{ir\xi}\frac 1{\xi-i\zeta_0} \frac {d\xi}{2\pi i} =e^{-\zeta_0r}, \quad \hbox{ for } r>0. $$

Now $$ f(\xi)= \pi\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \frac{d^2 k}{(2\pi)^2}\frac{\delta({\bf k}\cdot{\bf e}-\xi)}{m^2+ 2 \sum_1^d(1-\cos k_i)} \nonumber\\ = \pi \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \frac{d^2 k}{(2\pi)^2}\frac{\delta({\bf k}\cdot{\bf e}-\xi)} {D({\bf k})}. $$

For small $m^2$, the singularity is expected to be caused by zeros of the denominator $D({\bf k})$ pinching the contour of integration. This is certainly what happens in the continuum where $$ f(i\zeta) =\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dk \frac 1{k^2+m^2-\zeta^2}. $$ The integrand has poles at $k=\pm i\sqrt{m^2-\zeta^2}$ and these pinch when $\zeta=m$. The resultant singularity makes the propagator fall off as $e^{-m|r|}$, a result we know already.

To locate the pinch we move the $k$ integral off the real axis by setting ${\bf k} = i{\bf K}$. (The fact the $k$ integrals have real endpoints at $k=\pm \pi$ is not relevant to finding the pinch.) Then a pinch at $\xi=i\zeta_0$ requires $$ D({\bf K})=0,\nonumber\\ \frac{\partial D}{\partial {\bf K}}=0, \quad {\rm on}\quad {\bf K}\cdot {\bf e}=\zeta_0. $$

We can impose the constraint by means of a Lagrange multiplier $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial {\bf K}}\left\{D({\bf K})-\lambda {\bf K}\cdot {\bf e}\right\}=0. $$ These equations have a simple geometric interpretation. The set of points ${\bf K}\cdot {\bf e}=\zeta_0$ is a straight line perpendicular to ${\bf e}$ and at a distance $\zeta_0$ from the origin. Th equation above says that, if there is a pinch singularity at at $i\zeta_0$, then this line must be tangent to the curve $D({\bf K})=0$. A more direct way to see this is to note that the points of intersection of the contour of integration ${\bf K}\cdot{\bf e}\zeta_0$ with $D({\bf K})=0$ are the location of the poles of the inegrand in the complex ${\bf k}$ plane. Clearly they can only pinch if they are coincident and the line is tangent.

In our case $$ D({\bf K})= 4+m^2-2 (\cosh K_1+\cosh K_2). $$ For large $m^2$ the curve $D({\bf K})=0$ is essentially a square with sides at $\pm \cosh^{-1}(4+m^2)/2$

A little geometry shows that $$ \zeta_0 \approx (\cos\theta +\sin\theta)\cosh^{-1}(4+m^2)/2\nonumber\\ \approx (\cos\theta +\sin\theta)\ln (4+m^2). $$ Therefore, for large $m^2$ $$ G(|r|{\bf e},m^2) \approx e^{-|r|\zeta_0} = \frac 1{(4+m^2)^{|n_1|+|n_2|}}. $$ as you conjecture. This should perhaps not be surprising. At large mass the Green function is dominated by the shortest lattice path between $0$ and ${\bf n}=(n_1,n_2)$. There are many of these, but they all have the same length length $|n_1|+|n_2|$.

As $m^2$ becomes smaller the corners of the curve $D({\bf K})=0$ round off, tending to circularity at at small $m^2$.

It is easy to show that along any of the four axes $$ \kappa= \zeta_0=\cosh^{-1}(1+\frac 12 m^2), $$ while at $45^\circ$ we have $$ \kappa=\zeta_0= \sqrt 2 \cosh^{-1}(1+\frac 14 m^2). $$ Both expressions are equal to $m$ when $m^2$ is small, so the fall-off of the wave becomes circularly symmetric.

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by a 'massive scalar wave on the lattice'? $\endgroup$
    – JonTrav1
    Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 18:03
  • $\begingroup$ I mean the solution $G$ to $(-\nabla^2+m^2)G= \delta^2({\bf r})$ where the lattice $\nabla^2$ is the RHS of your wave equation. In your case the $m^2$ will change sign to $-\omega^2$ so you get an outgoing wave with a direction dependent velocity, rather than a direction depend decay. $\endgroup$
    – mike stone
    Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 18:31

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