# Wave equation for phonons

Question: What is the relativistic (quantum) wave equation that governs that motion of phonons?

My Attempt(s): The phonon Hamiltonian is given by, $$\mathscr{H} = \dfrac{1}{2}\sum_n \left(p_n^2 + \omega_n^2 q_n^2 - \hbar\omega_n\right) = \displaystyle\sum_n \hbar\omega_n \hat{a}_n^\dagger \hat{a}_n$$

Now if I write $$\mathscr{H}\Psi = i\hbar \dfrac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t}$$ following the Schrödinger equation, then the integer spin of the phonons will not be considered and hence we need a relativistic version of the wave equation.

In this circumstances, if I try to write the Klein–Gordon equation (if phonon is spin $$0$$) or the Proca equation (if photon is spin $$1$$), then another problem should arise from this answer on SE Physics, which is saying that the spin of a phonon can't be defined in a general way:

Since the group of rotations is not a continuous group in real crystals, it is not possible to define spin in a meaningful way. It is only in an isotropic ideal medium that is possible to define spin for a phonon (quantized accoustic wave). Equivalently it is only possible to define a spin if the the wavelength of the phonon is long or if one is restricted to phonons in special directions. It is only in such case that one can say that longitudinal phonons have spin $$0$$ and transversal phonons have $$1$$. From this article A.T.Levine, "A note concerning the spin of the phonon" you can read in the conclusions:

... Thus, the spin of the phonon will be well-defined in a medium which is isotropic but for a real crystal it will be well-defined only along certain restricted directions of propagation. The precise effects of phonon spin should, in principle, be detected experimentally by observing its interaction with other fields, e.g. spin waves. In any case, it is a quantity of fundamental interest that must be considered in any program of quantization.

Under this case, how should one proceed to arrive at the correct relativistic wave equation?

Edit:

By mentioning the name of Klein-Gordon equation and Proca equation, I didn't mean to say that phonon travels at the the speed of light. Rather I wanted to point out that we don't know the spin of phonon, from which we can construct a wave equation.

As phonon corresponds to an elastic wave (sound), we may perhaps need a relativistic version of the elastic/matter wave. And in order to construct that we have to know the exact spin of the underlying (quasi)field. Unfortunately, such kind of unique spin doesn't exist, as i mentioned earlier. So what to do? We need to need construct such a wave equation, which builds-in the fact that the phonons are bosons.

Related:

• Why would you expect phonons to obey a relativistic wave equation? Commented Jan 23, 2023 at 11:56
• Let's consider a general case. There are some cases, where the phonon can move in comparable velocity of the light. Besides this, another reason I have mentioned in my question. In Schrödinger equation, spin of the particle is not included. So to keep the information that the phonon is a boson in it's wave equation, we need a relativistic version.
– SCh
Commented Jan 23, 2023 at 12:00
• Hm. The wave equation for phonons should be a long-wavelength approximation (effective field theory) to the microscopic dynamics. If the underlying crystal structure is not rotationally invariant, then in general I'd expect the effective field theory not to be rotationally invariant either. Also the natural speed for propagation of sound waves is the speed of sound (which in general can depend on polarization), not the speed of light. Commented Jan 23, 2023 at 12:25
• The Levine quote mentions two different things: 1) isotropic materials and 2) specific directions in real crystals. Which are you interested in? Coming up with a relativistic version of linear elasticity will get you 1 but not 2. Commented Jan 27, 2023 at 4:39

$$a_{\mathbf{k},\nu}$$ and $$a_{\mathbf{k},\nu}^\dagger$$ in the Hamiltonian can be though of as the expansion coefficients of the field in terms of its eigenmodes, which are obtained by solving Maxwell equations with the appropriate boundary conditions. Thus, if, instead of creation/annihilation operators, we were to write the Hamiltonian in terms of the field operators $$\mathbf{E}(\mathbf{x},t)$$ and $$\mathbf{B}(\mathbf{x},t)$$, these would satisfy the same equation as the corresponding classical fields - ie.g., the usual wave equation (which is, of course, already relativistic.) The difference with the Klein-Gordon field is that a) KG is usually written for a scalar field, and b) KG has an additional mass term (inversely, one can say that wave equation is KG with zero mass $$m=0$$.)