For complex scalar field, we write the Lagrangian as: $$ \mathcal{L}=\partial_{\mu}\phi^{*}\partial^{\mu}\phi-m^2 \phi^{*}\phi $$ with the $U(1)$ symmetry, and under infinitesimal transformation: $$ \phi \rightarrow \phi +\alpha (i \phi) \\ \phi^{*} \rightarrow \phi^{*} +\alpha (-i \phi^{*}) $$ The Noether current: $$ \begin{aligned} j^{\mu}&=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\mu}\phi)}\Delta \phi +\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\mu}\phi^{*})}\Delta \phi^{*} \\ &=i[(\partial^{\mu}\phi^{*})\phi-(\partial^{\mu}\phi)\phi^{*}] \end{aligned} $$ However, in many cases, we see the Noether current is given in this formula: (such as P & S's QFT book on page 18) $$ j^{\mu}=i[(\partial^{\mu}\phi^{*})\phi-\phi^{*}(\partial^{\mu}\phi)] $$ So why the second term is switched between $(\partial^{\mu}\phi)$ and $\phi^{*}$?
If you have any comment or answer, I am really appreciate it.
New editing from comment:
Now if we consider the case of two complex Klein-Gordon field with the same mass: (as in P & S's QFT book on problem 2 (d) on page 34)
Now we can write the Lagrangian as $$ \mathcal{L}=\partial_{\mu}\Phi^{*}_i\partial^{\mu}\Phi_i-m^2 \Phi^{*}_i\Phi_i $$ where $i=1,2$ $$ \begin{align} \Phi &= \begin{bmatrix} \Phi_1 \\ \Phi_2 \end{bmatrix} \end{align} $$ $\Phi_1$ and $\Phi_2$ are two independent Klein-Gorden fields. Now we know that this Lagrangian have $U(2)$ symmetry, and due to $$ U(2)\simeq \frac{SU(2)\times U(1)}{\mathbb{Z}_2} $$ $\Phi$ under a infinitesimal transformation: $$ \Phi \rightarrow \Phi + i(\alpha\ + \vec{\theta}\cdot \vec{\sigma}^a/2)\Phi $$ where $\vec{\sigma}$ is the Pauli matrix.
Now according to the Noether current (related to parameter $\vec{\theta}$ only): $$ \begin{aligned} j^{\mu a}&=\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\mu}\Phi_i)}\Delta \Phi_i +\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\mu}\Phi^{*}_i)}\Delta \Phi^{*}_i \\ &=\frac{i}{2}[(\partial^{\mu}\Phi^{*}_i)(\sigma^a_{ij})\Phi_j-(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_i)(\sigma^a_{ij})\Phi_j^{*}] \\ &=\frac{i}{2}[(\partial^{\mu}\Phi^{*}_i)(\sigma^a_{ij})\Phi_j-\Phi_i^{*}(\sigma^a_{ij})(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_j)] \\ \end{aligned} $$ $\textbf{Now my question is that I am troubled for the last step.}$ I already know that $\Phi_i^{*}$ and $\partial^{\mu}\Phi_j$ commutate
Consider the case of $\sigma^2$: $$ (\partial^{\mu}\Phi_i)(\sigma^2_{ij})\Phi_j^{*}=-i(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_1)(\Phi_2^{*})+i(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_2)(\Phi_1^{*}) $$ while $$ \Phi_i^{*}(\sigma^2_{ij})(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_j)=i(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_1)(\Phi_2^{*})-i(\partial^{\mu}\Phi_2)(\Phi_1^{*}) $$
So their have a minus sign difference here, in this situation, $\textbf{the last equality of $j^{\mu a}$ can not be satisfied}$. While Peskin's QFT book require the last expression, so how to explain this.